NEET Daily Practice Questions 11 November 2024: DPP for 2025 aspirants

NEET Daily Practice Questions 11 November 2024: Aspirants preparing for the NEET 2025 shall refer to the below-mentioned NEET Daily Practice Questions 11 November 2024. These questions cover important topics from subjects like physics, chemistry, and biology (botany & zoology). They can analyze their strengths and weaknesses in a particular subject by working through these questions and reviewing the answers. It can help them to perform better in the upcoming NEET 2025 exam.

Also Read | JEE Main DPP 11 November 2024: Daily practice problems for 2025 aspirants

NEET Daily Practice Questions 11 November 2024: Chemistry

Here are some of the NEET daily practice questions with answers 11 November 2024:

Question 1: Fehling’s solution ‘A’ is

(1)  alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)

(2)  aqueous sodium citrate

(3)  aqueous copper sulphate

(4) alkaline copper sulphate

Answer: (3)

Question 2: 1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to

(1) Zero mg

(2) 200 mg

(3) 750 mg

(4) 250 mg

Answer: (4)

Question 3: Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of

(1) orientation of reactant molecules   during

(2)  rate constant at two different temperatures.

(3) rate constant at standard temperature.

(4) probability of collision.

Answer: (2)

Question 4: A compound with a molecular formula of C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

(1)  2,3-dimethylbutane

(2)  2,2-dimethylbutane

(3)  n-hexane

(4)  2-methylpentane

Answer: (1)

Question 5: Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F,  C, Si

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)  O < F < N < C < Si

(2)  F < O < N < C < Si

(3)  Si < C < N < O < F

(4)  Si < C < O < N < F

Answer: (3)

NEET Daily Practice Questions 11 November 2024: Botany

Here are some of the NEET daily practice questions with answers 11 November 2024:

Question 1: Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for

(1)  Dedifferentiation

(2)  Maturation

(3)  Differentiation

(4)  Redifferentiation

Answer: (1)

Question 2: Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of: 

(1)  4 bp                     

(2) 10 bp

(3)  8 bp              

(4) 6 bp

Answer: (4)

Question 3: Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because

A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for milions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.

B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.

C. More solar energy is available in the tropics.

D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.

E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)  A, B and E only

(2)  A, B and D only

(3)  A, C, D and E only

(4)  A and B only

Answer: (3)

Question 4: Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?

(1)  Mode of spore formation

(2)  Fruiting body

(3)  Morphology of mycelium

(4)  Mode of nutrition

Answer: (4)

Question 5: How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO2 fixed in the Calvin cycle?

(1)  3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

(2)  3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH

(3)  2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

(4)  2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH

 Answer: (2)

NEET Daily Practice Questions 11 November 2024: Zoology

Here are some of the NEET daily practice questions with answers 11 November 2024:

Question 1: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.

Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most approriate answer from the options given below:

(1)  Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2)  Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

(3) Both statement I and Statement II are correct.

(4) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect

 Answer: (1)

Question 2: Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.

(1)  Loop of Henle of the juxtamedullary nephron runs deep into medulla.

(2)  Juxtamedullary nephrons outnumber cortical nephrons.

(3)  Juxtamedullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.

(4)  Renal corpuscle of the juxtamedullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.

Answer: (1)

Question 3: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.

Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limited.

(1)  Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2)  Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(3)  Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(4)  Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Answer: (3)

Question 4: Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, selecte the correct sequential steps:

A.  Substrate enzyme complex formation.

B.  Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.

C.  Release of products.

D.  Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.

E. Substrate binding to active site.Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)   B, A, C, D, E

(2)   E, D, C, B, A

(3)   E, A, D, C, B

(4)  A, E, B, D, C

Answer: (3)

Question 5: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both double membrane bound organelles.

Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less dense than chloroplast

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1)  Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2)  Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

(3) Both statement I and Statement II are correct.

(4) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Answer: (1)

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