AIBE 19 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial (Available): PDF download for all AIBE XIX question paper sets

AIBE 19 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial: PDF download for all sets (Image Credit: Pexels)

AIBE XIX Answer Key 2024 Unofficial : The Bar Council of India has conducted the AIBE 19 2024 examination on December 22, 2024. Four sets of question papers, Set A, B, C, and D were asked in the examination. As the examination is over, the answer keys are being prepared by our subject experts and the same is being shared on the page below. Through this, test-takers can check the answers to the questions and then evaluate their performance on the test. Candidates must note that the answer key is unofficial in nature as it is prepared by the subject experts and not by the conducting authorities. The officials will release the official answer key soon. Until then, candidates can take the answer key as a reference to gauge their performance in the test. All the sets have the same questions, just in a different order, and so the same is also likely this year.

Also Read | AIBE XIX Exam Analysis 2024

AIBE XIX Answer Key 2024 Unofficial Set-Wise

For the candidates, the unofficial AIBE XIX Answer Key 2024 has been displayed in the following table:

S. No.	(SET B) Questions	Answers
1	Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?	37
2	Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?	86
3	Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the expeditious resolution of cases?	346
4	A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming that the judge in Court A is biased. The opposing party, Ravi, objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?	The High Court or the Supreme Court
5	Maya files a suit in Court A for the recovery of a sum of money from her neighbour, Neha. During the proceedings, Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as Seema is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, claiming that Seema is not a necessary party. Court A then reviews the application and decides that Seema should indeed be included as a defendant. What principle of the CPC is applied in this situation?	Order 1, Rule 10- Joinder and Substitution of Parties
6	Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?	Section 96
7	Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement?	90 Days
8	Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and Governor of States from personal appearance in court?	Section 133
9	What is the term used for a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?	Transfer of Suits
10	Under which order of the CPC the procedure for summary suits is provided?	Order XXXVII
11	Which section mandates State Government prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?	398
12	____ of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.	Section 88
13	Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?	Section 35 (A)
14	Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?	Coercion
15	Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in _____.	Section 14 of the BSA, 2023
16	In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During the investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location known to be frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?	The recovered laptop and fingerprints are circumstantial evidence that can be considered along with other evidence, but do not by themselves prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
17	Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resource as an electronic or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as a ?	Primary Evidence
18	Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?	165
19	According to section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases?	Only when related to other relevant fact
20	Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of "res judicata"?	Section 11
21	Under section 146 of the BSA 2023, when the leading questions are permissible in the court proceedings?	Leading questions are permitted during cross examination and when matters are introductory, undisputed, or sufficiently proved.
22	Which of the following is a characteristic of Mediation?	It involves a neutral third party who facilitates negotiation between the parties.
23	A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding a contract that both parties had entered into. The agreement includes an arbitration clause, which states that any disputes shall be referred to arbitration. However, the parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would be applicable to resolve the issue of the appointment of an arbitrator?	The court will appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 if the parties fail to agree on one.
24	Which of the following is not an advantage of using ADR?	It always results in a binding decision.
25	Kiran and Meera are involved in an arbitration, where Kiran was awarded Rs. 10 lakhs as compensation. Meera refuses to pay the amount, arguing that the award was not enforceable because of certain procedural irregularities in the arbitration process. Kiran decides to approach the court to enforce the arbitral award. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs the enforcement of an arbitral award?	Section 36 of the Act allows for the automatic enforcement of an arbitral award unless set aside by the court.
26	As per section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:	The officer held the official character claimed when signing or certifying the document
27	Under section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the divorced person, to marry again ______.	have to wait for a period of one year from the date of the decree.
28	Aarti and Rajesh have been married for five years. Over time, Aarti has been subjected to continuous cruelty by Rajesh, which has led to emotional and mental distress. Aarti decides to file for divorce on the grounds of cruelty under Section 13(1) (ia) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Which of the following statements is true regarding the grounds for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act?	Aarti must prove Rajesh's cruelty was intentional to succeed in the divorce petition
29	On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?	The local customs
30	Nisha and Aakash are separated, aid they both seek custody of their minor child, Aarav. Nisha has been the primary caregiver, while Aakash claims that he can provide better financial stability for Aarav. They both approach the court under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890. Which of the following factors will the court primarily consider in determining the custody of Aarav?	The welfare and best interests of the child.
31		a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
32	Which sections discusses with regard to "sapinda relationships" under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?	Section 3(f)(i), 5(v)
33	The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section _____ of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.	9
34	In which case a prison inmate sent a letter to the Supreme Court, describing physical torture which became a pioneer in public interest litigation, though the court later abandoned the practice of considering letters?	Sunit Batra vs. Delhi Administration
35	In the early 1980s, a social activist group discovered severe exploitation of labourers working in stone quarries near Delhi. The workers, including many children, were working in extremely hazardous conditions, living in makeshift shelters, and were effectively trapped in a cycle of debt and forced labour. The conditions revealed systematic violations of fundamental human rights. The Supreme Court was approached to look into the dire circumstances of the working persons there and one of the following views of the court was sustained in the said case, identify from the following-	The Supreme Court recognized the right against forced labour as a fundamental right derived from the right to life and human dignity under Article 21.
36	Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: In PIL cases, the court plays a passive role similar to traditional cases. Statement 2: PIL is primarily focused on individual disputes.	Both statements are false.
37	Fatima, a Muslim woman, has been divorced by her husband, Imran, through Talaq. Fatima is now seeking maintenance from Imran for herself and her two minor children. Imran argues that Fatima has remarried and, therefore, is not entitled to any maintenance. Under Muslim law, which of the following statements is true regarding Fatima's claim for maintenance?	Fatima is not entitled to maintenance because she has remarried.
38	Which of the following best defines delegated legislation?	Laws made by an administrative authority under powers given to them by Parliament
39	In 2020 at Dhorodo village the Panchayat elections could not happen due to covid pandemic while the tenure of the Panchayat was getting over that year itself. Mr. Haribansh, represented the people that year at the Panchayat post dissolution of the Panchayat tenure and made a law exercising the delegated power vide the Panchayati Raj Act of the state to restrict their economic activities per day to 100 only... In which of the following case this is allowed or restricted?	None of these
40	Which of the following is/are not grounds for judicial review of administrative action? (1) Illegality (2) Irrationality (3) Proportionality (4) Public Opinion	Only (4)
41	What does "conflict of interest" refer to in professional ethics?	A situation where personal interests conflict with professional duties.
42	Advocate Mr. X was representing a client, Mr. Y, in a property dispute case. During the proceedings, Advocate Mr. X accepted a bribe from the opposing party to delay the case, causing significant harm to Mr. Y's interests. Moreover, Mr. X failed to inform his client about critical hearing dates, leading to adverse judgments. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option -	It is a violation of rules made by the Bar Council of India for the professional Ethics.
43	The nature of proceedings in the cases of professional misconduct: (1) Criminal in Nature (2) Neither Civil nor Criminal (3) Quasi-criminal in nature (4) Civil in Nature	Only (3)
44	Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The concept of "locus standi" is relaxed in PIL cases. Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?	Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
45	As per Section 2 (84) Share means share in the share capital of a Company and includes _____.	Stocks
46	Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for _____.	Kinds of Shares Capital
47	A manufacturing company in the city of Surat named as "X" has been discharging untreated industrial waste into a nearby river, violating the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. This has resulted in severe pollution, making the river water unsafe for drinking and harming aquatic life. Local farmers and residents, who rely on the river for irrigation and daily needs, have started facing health issues and crop failures due to the contaminated water. Despite multiple complaints to the local pollution control board, no action has been taken against the company. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer -	It is the violation of Section 24 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
48	Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?	The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
49	Which of the following is/are included under Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 describing the Intermediary? (1) Cyber Cafes (2) Telecom Regulators (3) Social Media Platforms (4) Internet Service Providers	(1), (2) and (4)
50	Appropriate procedural safeguards help reduce threats to objectivity and counter any perception of possible bias, which of the following is/are not procedural safeguards?	Only (2)
51	By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?	81
52	The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the _____.	Governor
53	Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?	Article 129
54	Which of the following legislations has been included under the Social Security Code, 2020? (1) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (2) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 (3) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 (4) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959	(1), (2) and (4)
55	XYZ Textiles Ltd., a manufacturing company, recently terminated 04 workers without providing any compensation. The termination was because of the misconduct on the part of the workers. The company issued a show cause notice and the disciplinary enquiry was also conducted against them. On the basis of the recommendations of the committee the services of these employees were terminated. The workers claimed the retrenchment compensation which was rejected by the management. Aggrieved by the rejection the workers have filed a complaint in the Labour Court under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer -	The termination does not amount to retrenchment, hence no compensation.
56	Malti, a small business owner, runs an online clothing store. Recently, she noticed that her website had been hacked, and her customers' personal information, including names, addresses, and payment details, was stolen. Shortly after, some of her customers reported unauthorized transactions on their accounts. Malti wishes to file a complaint against the incident. On the basis of the above problem select the correct option:	It is punishable under Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the customers can also claim the compensation under certain circumstances.
57	Mr B told Mr A to leave the premises in occupation of Mr A. When Mr A refused then Mr B collected some of his workmen who mustered round Mr A. They tucking up their sleeves and aprons and threatened to break the plaintiff's neck, he did not leave. Under which tortious act, Mr A can file the case?	Assault
58	Ms J knowing while taking the lift that driver Mr T was under the influence of alcohol. Consequently, car met with an accident and Ms J got injuries and she has filed the case for compensation. Which defence could be claimed by Mr T?	Violenti-non-fit-injuria
59	Mr K is owner of a building containing a large number of rooms and had derived a considerable income by letting them. Mr Y is owner of an adjacent cotton mill which erected after the occupation by Mr K. Owing to noise and smoke of the mill several rooms remain vacated that results into loss for Mr K. Examine relevant tort for the case.	Nuisance
60	There was a collision between two buses, one owned by the government and another was a private bus. Wherein private bus was coming from wrong side and government bus was coming rashly, neither slowing down his bus after seeing the other bus. Determine the tortious act.	Contributory Negligence
61	The term "Income" is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961 under _____.	Section 2 (24)
62	Mr. X deposits 65,000 in the term deposit of 5 years with the Post Office to avail tax deduction under section 80C. Assuming Mr. X does not opt for concessional tax regime u/s 115BAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.	Mr. X is not guilty of either tax evasion/tax avoidance.
63	Read the given statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1: Agricultural income is exempt from tax under Section 10(1) of Income Tax Act, 1961. Statement 2: Tax on Non-Agricultural in case of Non-Agricultural Income exceeds Basic Exemption limit and Agricultural Income exceeds ₹5000/- is determined by Scheme of Partial Integration of Non-Agricultural Income with Agricultural Income.	Both the Statements are correct.
64	Ms J, a banker refuses to honour cheque of Ms F. Though she was having sufficient balance yet it doesn't suffer any loss to Ms F. Ms F can file the case under which scenario?	Injuria-sine-damnum
65	An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under ______.	Section 2 (g)
66	The concept of invalid guarantee is covered under Sections _____.	142-144
67	"A", a real estate developer, entered into a contract with "B", the owner of a piece of prime land, for the purchase of her property. The contract stipulated that "A" would pay ₹50 lakhs in advance and the remaining 1 crore within six months. In return, "B" agreed to transfer the title to the land. However, after receiving the advance payment, "B" refused to execute the sale deed, claiming that she received a better offer from another buyer. "A" demanded the enforcement of the contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, but "B" denied his claim. "A" has to file a suit in a court of law. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct answer.	"A" may file a suit in the civil court having the powers under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
68	"A" transfers a piece of land to "B" on the condition that "B" shall not transfer the land to anyone else for the next 10 years. In this case, "B" has no right to transfer the land to someone else for the next 10 years. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.	It amounts to Conditional Transfer of Property.
69	Mr. Rajesh issued a cheque of 50,000 to his supplier, Mr. Sharma, for the payment of goods purchased. When Mr. Sharma deposited the cheque, it was returned by the bank with the remark "Insufficient Funds". On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option,	A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within one month for the dishonour of the cheque.
71	Rent-Free Accommodation provided by an employer to employee is _____.	Perquisite as per Section 17 (2) of the Income Tax Act.
72	How the recovery of specific immovable property may be enforced?	A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
73	Which section of Law of Contract defines, "A revoked at any time, before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards."?	Section 5
74	According to the Land Acquisition Act (Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement), 2013, governments can acquire land for: (i) Strategic purpose. (ii) Projects for Families Affected by Projects. (iii) For public-private partnership projects, where government ownership of land will remain with the government.	(i), (ii) and (iii)
75	Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?	Land Acquisition Act, 1894
76	Soham, an independent software developer, created a mobile app called "FitLife" that provides personalized fitness plans. He registered the app's name and logo under trademark law and copyrighted the app's source code. However, six months after its launch, Soham discovered a competing app called "FitLyfe", with a similar logo and features, being marketed by a large tech company. Soham believes the competing app copied elements of his source code and intentionally used a confusingly similar name and logo to mislead customers. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option. Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and logo by the competing app?	Yes, if he can prove that the names are confusingly similar.
77	What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?	Lifetime of the author plus 60 years
78	Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to ____.	Cancellation of instruments
79	In which case did the Supreme Court of India held that fundamental rights cannot be waived?	Basheshar Nath vs. IT Commissioner
80	Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Ac (i) It introduces Article 239 A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assembly of the national capital territory of Delhi. (ii) It introduces Article 338 providing for the reservation of seats for women in the house of people. (iii) It also adds Article 334A which states in that the said amendment will commence after the first census have been taken after the commencement of the said act. (iv) The above-stated shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of 15 years from search commencement.	(i), (ii) and (iii)
81	The Parliament enacts the "Fair Housing Act, 2024", which includes the following provisions: (1) Section 3: Prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or gender. (2) Section 6: Imposes a penalty of 10,000 for discrimination. (3) Section 10: Makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all tenants in the previous 10 years. A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing that it violates the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds the other provisions of the law. What principle did the court apply in this decision?	Doctrine of Severability
82	The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the _____.	Governor
83	_____ have not been set up under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in an organization.	Environment Tribunals
84	Which of the following is/are included under the definition of employer given under The Industrial Relations Code, 2020?	(1), (2) and (3)
85	In which case was a registered society held to be an “authority” for the purpose of Article 12?	Ajay Hasis vs. Khalid Mujib
86	Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?	101
87	Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?	Either House of Parliament
88	Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be "Criminal Force":	When it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear or annoyance.
89	According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under Section 182 (1)?	Three Hundred Rupees
90	According to the provisions of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer in which of the offences committed or attempting to be committed? (1) Robbery (2) House-breaking after sunset (3) Theft, mischief or house trespass	(1), (2) and (3)
91	Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil's arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Which of the following offenses has Rajesh committed?	Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC
92	Amit, intending to cause the death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay sustains severe injuries and dies on the spot. The investigation reveals that Amit acted with the knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death. However, there is no evidence of premeditation or intent to murder Vijay. Which of the following offenses has Amit committed?	Murder under Section 302 of IPC
93	Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?	105
94	Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNS?	65
95	A new offense of 'Snatching' has been introduced by the BNS. Which section of the BNS defines 'Snatching' as an offense?	304
96	Consider the following statements and answer the question given below : Mr. Patel being a police officer receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in a robbery of bank and has also helped to hide the valuable properties in his farm, as stated by two villagers. With this regard, consider the following: The Police Officer Mr. Patel may arrest Raju without warrant when (1) Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of Mr. Patel. (2) Since the reasonable complaint against Raju has been received and there is a strong suspicion exists due to the testimony of villagers, he can be immediately arrested. (3) Raju can be arrested only when he tries to escape or run away. (4) Raju can be arrested so as to prevent him from making any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with facts and circumstances. Which of the above is/are the correct statement?	(2) and (4)
97	BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offense irrespective of area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as _____.	Zero FIR
98	Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?	531
99	The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least ____ years.	7
100	Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders?	356

When the official answer key is released, candidates can verify their answers by accessing a separate PDF for each set through their login dashboard. The PDF will feature two columns: one for the set code and another for the answer key, with correct options listed against each question number. Please note that the answer key will only provide codes, without including the full questions or answers.

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