CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 (All Sets): Detailed solutions PDF download

Updated On: April 02, 2024 01:06 PM

Students can access CBSE Class 12 Biology answer key 2024 for all sets and QP Codes here. Refer to the answer key to valuate your tentative marks in the March 19 exam.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 (Image Credit: Pexels)

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024: Students can access the answer keys for CBSE Class 12 Biology 2024 (Subject Code: 044) for the exam held on March 19, 2024. The Biology answer keys on this page are updated for the following question paper sets:

57/2/1 (Set 1), 57/2/2 (Set 2), 57/3/2 (Set 2), 57/4/1 (Set 1), 57/4/2 (Set 2), 57/5/1 (Set 1), and 57/5/2 (Set 2).

The unofficial answer keys include solutions for multiple choice questions of Section A from Questions 1 to 16 of 1 mark each to help students tally their marked responses. The answers for other sections are unavailable since they include descriptive answers that depend on the student’s way of writing and presenting answers. All the questions in the paper are compulsory and there is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions. Neat and properly labelled diagrams were to be drawn by students (where necessary).

Also Read | CBSE Class 12 Result Expected Release Date 2024

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/2/1 (Set 1)

Section A includes 16 multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each, the answers to which Set 1 (Code 57/2/1) are provided here in tabular format.

Question Number	CBSE Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/2/1 (Set 1)
1. An angiosperm embryo sac is located within the:	(B) Megasporangium
2. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II and select the correctly matched option from those given below : Column I (Cross) 1. Mendelian monohybrid 2. Mendelian dihybrid 3. Incomplete dominance 4. Test cross (monohybrid) Column II (Phenotypic Ratio) (i) 1:2:1 (F ₂ ) (ii) 1:1 (iii) 3:1 (F ₂ ) (iv) 9:3:3:1 (F ₂ )	(C) 1 - (iii), 2 - (iv), 3 - (i), 4 - (ii)
3. In humans, the secondary oocyte completes meiotic division when :	(D) acrosomal enzymes break down the zona pellucida.
4. Which one of the following statements is not true?	(D) Homologous structures are a result of convergent evolution.
5. A population is in genetic equilibrium/Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene with 2 alleles (dominant allele is 'A' and recessive allele 'a'). If the frequency of allele 'A' is 0.6, then the frequency of genotype 'Aa' is:	(C) 0.48
6. In the double helical structure of DNA molecule, the strands are:	(C) anti-parallel and complementary
7. In a 'transcription unit', the 'terminator' is located towards the:	(D) 3' end of the coding strand
8. A woman with normal vision has a colour blind father. She marries a man with normal vision. The percentage chance of their progeny being colour blind is :	(A) 25%
9. The vector for dengue fever is:	(A) Female Aedes mosquito
10. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?	(C) Monascus purpureus - Citric Acid
11. Which one of the following is not a feature of plasmids?	(C) Single stranded
12. The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted because in sea :	(A) Biomass of fishes exceeds that of phytoplankton.
13. Assertion (A): RNA is unstable and can mutate at a faster rate. Reason (R): The presence of 2' - OH group in every nucleotide of RNA makes it labile and easily degradable.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
14. Assertion (A): Virus-infected cells produce interferons. Reason (R): Interferons can cause inflammation of virus-infected cells.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
15. Assertion (A). Specific enzymes are used to degrade the cell wall in organisms to isolate the DNA from the cell. Reason (R): Fungal cell wall is degraded by the enzyme cellulase.	(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
16. Assertion (A): Loss of biodiversity can occur due to overexploitation of resources. Reason (R): Introduction of Clarias gariepinus in Indian rivers has led to a decline in native Indian fishes.	(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/2/2 (Set 2)

Section A includes 16 multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each, the answers to which Set 2 (Code 57/2/2) are provided here in tabular format.

Question Number	CBSE Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/2/2 (Set 2)
1. Homologous organs indicate	(B) Divergent Evolution
2. A population is in genetic equilibrium/Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene with 2 alleles (dominant allele is 'A' and recessive allele 'a'). If the frequency of allele 'A' is 0.6, then the frequency of genotype 'Aa' is:	(C) 0.48
3. In the double helical structure of DNA molecule, the strands are:	(C) anti-parallel and complementary
4. In a 'transcription unit', the 'terminator' is located towards the:	(D) 3' end of the coding strand
5. Which one of the following option denotes mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis?	(D)
6. The vector for dengue fever is:	(A) Female Aedes mosquito
7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?	(C) Monascus purpureus - Citric Acid
8. The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted because in sea :	(A) Biomass of fishes exceeds that of phytoplankton.
9. Which of the following is not required for PCR?	(A) Restriction endonuclease
10. In humans, the secondary oocyte completes meiotic division when:	(D) acrosomal enzymes break down the zona pellucida.
11. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II and select the correctly matched option from those given below : Column I (Cross) 1. Mendelian monohybrid 2. Mendelian dihybrid 3. Incomplete dominance 4. Test cross (monohybrid) Column II (Phenotypic Ratio) (i) 1:2:1 (F ₂ ) (ii) 1:1 (iii) 3:1 (F ₂ ) (iv) 9:3:3:1 (F ₂ )	(C) 1 - (iii), 2 - (iv), 3 - (i), 4 - (ii)
12. The functional megaspore of an angiosperm develops into:	(A) Embryo sac
13. Assertion (A) Loan of biodiversity ran occur due to overexploitation of resources. Reason (R) Introduction of Clarias guriepinus in Indian rivers has led to a decline in native Indian fishes.	(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
14. Assertion (A) In genetic engineering, antibiotic genes are used as selectable markers. Reason (R): Selectable markers help us to identify transformants from non-transformants.	(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
15. Assertion (A): Virus-infected cells produce interferons. Reason R Interferons can cause inflammation of virus-infected cells.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
16. Assertion (A): RNA is unstable and can mutate at a faster rate. Reason (R): The presence of 2' - OH group in every nucleotide of RNA makes it labile and easily degradable.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/3/2 (Set 2)

Section A includes 16 multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each, the answers to which Set 2 (Code 57/3/2) are provided here in tabular format.

Question Number	CBSE Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/3/2 (Set 2)
1. The ploidy of the apomictie embryos developing from the integument celle and synergids respectively would be:	(B) 2n, n
3. A person with trisomy of 21st chromosome shows (i) Furrowed tongue (ii) Characteristic palm crease (iii) Rudimentary ovaries (iv) Gynaecomastia Select the correct option, from the choices given below :	(D) (i) and (ii)
2. A DNA fragment has 2500 nucleotides, out of which 240 are Guanine. How many bases having double hydrogen bonds between them does this DNA fragment possess?	(D) 2020
3. The mechanism to produce seeds without fertilization has evolved in the given family of the flowering plants:	(A) Asteraceae
4. Louis Pasteur dismissed the theory of spontaneous generation by his experiments using pre-sterilised flasks and:	(B) Killed yeast
5. After the 1850s in the post-industrialization era in England, the expected effect of natural selection on the number of white-winged moths as compared to the dark-winged moths was:	(A) Less in number
6. A Snapdragon plant bearing red colour flowers was crossed with a Snapdragon plant bearing white colour flowers. The F ₁ progeny on selfing produced the progeny in the ratio of:	(D) 25% Red : 50% Pink : 25% White
7. In which of the following chromosomal disorders do individuals have short stature, underdeveloped feminine character and sterile ovaries?	(B) Turner's syndrome
8. Which one of the following represents the correct annealing of primers to the DNA to be amplified in the PCR?	(B)
9. A patient is suffering from fever, chills, cough, headache and bluish finger nails and lips. These symptoms are of the disease:	(D). Pneumonia
10. In an experiment, E. coli is grown in a medium containing ¹⁴ NH ₄ CL ( ¹⁴ N is the light isotope of Nitrogen) followed by growing it for six generations in a medium having heavy isotope of nitrogen ( ¹⁵ N). After six generations, their DNA was extracted and subjected to CsCl density gradient centrifugation. Identify the correct density (Light/Hybrid/Heavy) and ratio of the bands of. DNA in CsCl density gradient centrifugation.	To be updated
11. For the replication of the first recombinant DNA, Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer used the DNA polymerase of:	(C) Escherichia coli
12. The population growth curve applicable for a population growing in nature with limited resources available to them will be:	(C)
13. Assertion (A): The zygote gives rise to a heart-shaped embryo and subsequently proembryo in most angiosperms Reason (R): The zygote is present at the micropylar end of the embryo sac and develops into an embryo.	(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
14. Assertion (A): Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are subjected to splicing to remove the introns. Reason (R): Primary transcripts contain both exons and introns and the introns are non-functional in eukaryotes.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
15. Assertion (A): The stirrer facilitates the even mixing of oxygen availability in a bioreactor. Reason (R): Stirred-tank bioreactors generally have a flat base.	(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
16. Assertion (A): The chronic use of alcohol by a person leads to cirrhosis. Reason (R): Alcohol addiction at bones because theme of mental and financial distress to the entire life of the addicted person.	(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/4/1 (Set 1)

Section A includes 16 multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each, the answers to which Set 1 (Code 57/4/1) are provided here in tabular format.

Question Number	CBSE Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/4/1 (Set 1)
1. In a fertilized ovule of an angiosperm, the colls in which n. 2n and 3n conditions respectively occur are:	(A) antipodal, zygote and endosperm
2. Select the option that gives the correct identification of ovum, morula and blastocyst in a human female reproduction system as shown in the following diagram:	(D) Ovum - B, Morula - D, Blastocyst - G
3. Study the table given below Contraceptive/ Contraceptive Method A. The pill B. Condom C. Vasectomy D Copper-T Mode of Action I. Prevent sperm reaching cervix II. Prevent implantation III Inhibits ovulation IV. Semen contains no sperm Select the option where contraceptive/contraceptive methods are correctly matched with their mode of action.	(C) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
4. Identify the category of genetic disorder depicted in the pedigree chart given below:	(A) X-Linked recessive
5. Which was the last of the 24 human chromosome to be completely sequenced?	(A) Chromosome - 1
6. Study the following diagram of Transverse Section of a young anther of an angiosperm:	(A) A - Connective, B - Endothecium, C - Pollen grain.
7. Turner's syndrome in humans occurs due to	(A) Aneuploidy
8. Which of the options has correct identification of 'P', 'Q' and 'R' in the illustration of 'Central Dogma' given below?	(D) P - Transcription, Q - mRNA, R - Translation
9. Who proposed the mutation theory in favour of organic evolution?	(D) Hugo De Vries
10. Given below is a list of some commercially important products in column A, whereas in column B are names of source organisms: Column - A (Bioactive Products) A. Cyclosporin-A B. Statins C. Streptokinase D. Penicillin Column - B (Source Organisms) (i) Streptococcus (ii) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Penicillium notatum (iv) Monascus purpureus Select the option where the product and their source organisms are correctly matched.	(D) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)
11. The 'molecular scissors' fall in the category of:	(D) Restriction enzymes
12. ELISA technique is based on the principle of	(B) antigen-antibody interaction
13. Assertion (A): A given fig species can be pollinated only by its partner wasp. Reason (R): The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg laying sites.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
14. Assertion (A): Plasmids are autonomously replicating circular extra- chromosomal DNA. Reason (R): Plasmids are usually present in Eukaryotic cells.	(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
15. Assertion (A): Patents are granted by government to an inventor. Reason (R): Patents prevents others from commercial use of an invention.	(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
16. Assertion (A) : Some aquatic ecosystems have inverted biomass pyramids. Reason (R): More energy is required by the organisms occupying higher trophic levels.	(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/4/2 (Set 2)

Section A includes 16 multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each, the answers to which Set 2 (Code 57/4/2) are provided here in tabular format.

Question Number	CBSE Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/4/2 (Set 2)
1. In a fertilized ovule of an angiosperm, the colls in which n. 2n and 3n conditions respectively occur are:	(A) antipodal, zygote and endosperm
2. Turner's syndrome in humans occurs due to	(A) Aneuploidy
3. Which of the options has correct identification of 'P', 'Q' and 'R' in the illustration of 'Central Dogma' given below?	(D) P - Transcription, Q - mRNA, R - Translation
4. Study the following diagram of Transverse Section of a young anther of an angiosperm:	(A) A - Connective, B - Endothecium, C - Pollen grain.
5. Select the option that gives the correct identification of ovum, morula and blastocyst in a human female reproduction system as shown in the following diagram:	(D) Ovum - B, Morula - D, Blastocyst - G
6. Study the table given below Contraceptive/ Contraceptive Method A. The pill B. Condom C. Vasectomy D Copper-T Mode of Action I. Prevent sperm reaching cervix II. Prevent implantation III Inhibits ovulation IV. Semen contains no sperm Select the option where contraceptive/contraceptive methods are correctly matched with their mode of action.	(C) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
7. Identify the category of genetic disorder depicted in the pedigree chart given below:	(A) X-Linked recessive
8. ELISA technique is based on the principle of	(B) antigen-antibody interaction
9. Homologous organs indicate	(B) Divergent evolution
10. The 'molecular scissors' fall in the category of:	(D) Restriction enzymes
11. Which of the chromosome in a human possesses the least number of genes?	(D) Y-chromosome
12. Given below is a list of some commercially important products in column A, whereas in column B are names of source organisms: Column - A (Bioactive Products) A. Cyclosporin-A B. Statins C. Streptokinase D. Penicillin Column - B (Source Organisms) (i) Streptococcus (ii) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Penicillium notatum (iv) Monascus purpureus Select the option where the product and their source organisms are correctly matched.	(D) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)
13. Assertion (A): Plasmids are autonomously replicating circular extra- chromosomal DNA. Reason (R): Plasmids are usually present in Eukaryotic cells.	(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
14. Assertion (A): Patents are granted by government to an inventor. Reason (R): Patents prevents others from commercial use of an invention.	(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
15. Assertion (A): A given fig species can be pollinated only by its partner wasp. Reason (R): The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg laying sites.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
16. Assertion (A) : Some aquatic ecosystems have inverted biomass pyramids. Reason (R): More energy is required by the organisms occupying higher trophic levels.	(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/5/1 (Set 1)

Section A includes 16 multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each, the answers to which Set 1 (Code 57/5/1) are provided here in tabular format.

Question Number	CBSE Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/5/1 (Set 1)
1. A single gene that controls the expression of more than one trait is said to show	(D) Pleiotropism
1. The ploidy of the apomictie embryos developing from the integument celle and synergids respectively would be:	(B) 2n, n
5. Observe the schematic representation of assisted reproductive technology given below : Identify the most appropriate technique depicted in the above diagram.	(C) ICSI
10. Interferons are proteins secreted by	(D) Virus infected cell
8. During biological treatment of sewage, the masses of bacteria held together by fungal filaments to form mesh like structures are called	(B) flocs
Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of observing DNA separation by agarose gel electrophoresis?	(D) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under UV light.
A phenomenon where a male insect mistakenly identified the patterns of a orchid flower as the female insect partner, and tries to copulate and thereby pollinates the flower is said to be:	(A) Pseudocopulation
11. Identify the correct labelings in the figure of a fertilised embryo sac of an angiosperm given below.	(B) A - degenerating synergids, B - zygote, C - PEN, D - degenerating antipodals
12. Study the pedigree chart of a family showing the inheritance pattern of a certain disorder. Select the option that correctly identifies the nature of the trait depicted in the pedigree chart.	(D) Autosomal recessive
6. Match the following genes of the lac operon listed in column 'A' with the respective products listed in column 'B' : A (Gene) a. 'i' gene b. 'z' gene c. 'a' gene d. 'y' gene B (Products) (i) ẞ-galactosidase (ii) lac permease (iii) repressor (iv) transacetylase Select the correct option.	(C) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii)
If both the parents are carriers for thalassaemis, the chances of an afflicted child to be born to them is:	(A) 25%
1. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand in a transcription unit is 5' - ATGAATG - 3', the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be	(A) 5' - AUGAAUG - 5'
16. Assertion (A): AIDS is a syndrome caused by HIV. Reason (R) : HIV is a virus that damages the immune system with DNA as its genetic material.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
15. Assertion (A): In molecular diagnosis, single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with radioactive molecule is called a probe. Reason (R) : A probe always searches and hybridises with complementary DNA in a clone of cells.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
15. Assertion (A): In birds the sex of the offspring is determined by males. Reason (R): Males are homogametic while females are heterogametic.	(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
13. Assertion (A): Communities that comprise of more species tend to be more stable. Reason (R): A higher number of species results in less year to year variation in total biomass.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

CBSE Class 12 Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/5/2 (Set 2)

Section A includes 16 multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each, the answers to which Set 2 (Code 57/5/2) are provided here in tabular format.

Question Number	CBSE Biology Answer Key 2024 for QP Code 57/5/2 (Set 2)
1. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand in a transcription unit is 5' - ATGAATG - 3', the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be	(A) 5' - AUGAAUG - 5'
2. How many base pairs will be there in 20 nucleosomes in a DNA double helix ?	(A) 4000
3. A person with trisomy of 21st chromosome shows (i) Furrowed tongue (ii) Characteristic palm crease (iii) Rudimentary ovaries (iv) Gynaecomastia Select the correct option, from the choices given below :	(D) (i) and (ii)
4. Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called	(B) Saltation
5. Observe the schematic representation of assisted reproductive technology given below : Identify the most appropriate technique depicted in the above diagram.	(C) ICSI
6. Match the following genes of the lac operon listed in column 'A' with the respective products listed in column 'B' : A (Gene) a. 'i' gene b. 'z' gene c. 'a' gene d. 'y' gene B (Products) (i) ẞ-galactosidase (ii) lac permease (iii) repressor (iv) transacetylase Select the correct option.	(C) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii)
7. Which one of the following enzymes a fungal cell should be treated with to get the DNA along with other macro molecules released from it?	(D) Chitinase
8. During biological treatment of sewage, the masses of bacteria held together by fungal filaments to form mesh like structures are called	(B) flocs
9. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of "humus" that is formed during decomposition of detritus?	(B) amorphous, colloidal, light coloured substance
10. Interferons are proteins secreted by	(D) Virus infected cell
11. Identify the correct labelings in the figure of a fertilised embryo sac of an angiosperm given below.	(B) A - degenerating synergids, B - zygote, C - PEN, D - degenerating antipodals
12. Study the pedigree chart of a family showing the inheritance pattern of a certain disorder. Select the option that correctly identifies the nature of the trait depicted in the pedigree chart.	(D) Autosomal recessive
13. Assertion (A): Communities that comprise of more species tend to be more stable. Reason (R): A higher number of species results in less year to year variation in total biomass.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
14. Assertion (A): The sugar-phosphate backbone of two chains in DNA double helix show anti-parallel polarity. Reason (R): The phosphor-diester bonds in one strand go from a 3' carbon of one nucleotide to a 5' carbon of adjacent nucleotide, whereas those in complementary strand go vice versa.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
15. Assertion (A): In molecular diagnosis, single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with radioactive molecule is called a probe. Reason (R) : A probe always searches and hybridises with complementary DNA in a clone of cells.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
16. Assertion (A): AIDS is a syndrome caused by HIV. Reason (R) : HIV is a virus that damages the immune system with DNA as its genetic material.	(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

CBSE Class 12 Biology 2024: Analysis and Question Paper

The analysis and question paper for CBSE Class 12 Biology 2024 held on March 19, 2024, can be checked at the following links:

CBSE 12th Biology Exam Analysis 2024
CBSE 12th Biology Question Paper 2024

CBSE Class 12 Answer Key 2024 Links |

The question papers for the respective day-wise exams are available at the links below:

Subject	CBSE 12th Answer Key 2024 Link
Computer Science	CBSE Class 12 Computer Science Answer Key 2024
Informatics Practices	CBSE Class 12 Informatics Practices Answer Key 2024
Sociology	CBSE Class 12 Sociology Answer Key 2024
History	CBSE Class 12 History Answer Key 2024
Business Studies	CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Answer Key 2024
Accountancy	CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Answer Key 2024
Political Science	CBSE Class 12 Political Science Answer Key 2024
Economics	CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2024
Psychology	CBSE Class 12 Psychology Answer Key 2024
Home Science	CBSE Class 12 Home Science Answer Key 2024
Physical Education	CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Answer Key 2024
Home Science	CBSE Class 12 Home Science Answer Key 2024
Mathematics	CBSE Class 12 Mathematics Answer Key 2024
Physics	CBSE Class 12 Physics Answer Key 2024
Geography	CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024
Chemistry	CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Answer Key 2024
English Core	CBSE Class 12 English Core Answer Key 2024
Hindi	CBSE Class 12 Hindi Core Answer Key 2024
Biotechnology	CBSE Class 12 Biotechnology Answer Key 2024
Entrepreneurship	CBSE Class 12 Entrepreneurship Answer Key 2024

CBSE Class 12 2024 Weightage Subject-Wise |

Access CBSE Class 12 weightage 2024 for the upcoming papers here in the given table:

Subject	Weightage Link
Political Science	CBSE Class 12 Political Science Weightage 2024
Accountancy	CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Weightage 2024
Business Studies	CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Weightage 2024
History	CBSE Class 12 History Weightage 2024
Sociology	CBSE Class 12 Sociology Weightage 2024
Computer Science	CBSE Class 12 Computer Science Weightage 2024
Informatics Practices	CBSE Class 12 Informatics Practices Weightage 2024

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