JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024: Daily practice problems for 2025 aspirants

Prasanthi Boodati

Updated On: December 26, 2024 06:30 AM

To enhance the regular preparation for JEE Main Session 1 2025, aspirants should solve daily practice questions. Here are JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024 for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics.


 
JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024

JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024: JEE Main Session 1 2025 will take place from January 22 to 31. Applicants preparing for the exam must focus on practising the JEE Main sample papers. Hence, here are some daily practice questions with answers for JEE Main DPP 26 December  2024, including five questions from each subject: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry.

Also Read | NEET Daily Practice Questions 26 December 2024: DPP for 2025 aspirants

JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024: Physics

Candidates can check out the JEE Main DPP 26 December  2024 daily practice problems for 2025 aspirants from the Physics section:

Question 1: A radio can tune to any station in the 6 MHz to 10 MHz band. The value of corresponding wavelength bandwidth will be

(A) 4 m

(B) 20 m

(C) 30 m

(D) 50 m

Answer (B)

Question 2: The disintegration rate of a certain radioactive sample at any instant is 4250 disintegrations per minute. 10 minutes later, the rate becomes 2250 disintegrations per minute. The approximate decay constant is

(Take log101.88 = 0.274)

(A) 0.02 min–1

(B) 2.7 min–1

(C) 0.063 min–1

(D) 6.3 min–1

Answer (C)

Question 3: A parallel beam of light of wavelength 900 nm and intensity 100 Wm–2 is incident on a surface perpendicular to the beam. The number of photons crossing 1 cm–2 area perpendicular to the beam in one second is

(A) 3 × 10^16

(B) 4.5 × 10^16

(C) 4.5 × 10^17

(D) 4.5 × 10^20

Answer (B)

Question 4: An electric bulb is rated as 200 W. What will be the peak magnetic field at 4 m distance produced by the radiations coming from this bulb? Consider this bulb as a point source with 3.5% efficiency.

(A)  1.19 × 10–8T

(B) 1.71 × 10–8T

(C) 0.84 × 10–8T

(D) 3.36 × 10–8T

Answer (B)

Question 5: In a series LR circuit XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1. When a capacitor with capacitance C such that XL = XC is put in series, the power factor becomes P2. The ratio P1/P2 is

(A) 1/2

(B) 1/(2)^½

(C) (3/2)^½

(D) 2/1

Answer (B)

JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024: Chemistry

Candidates can check out the JEE Main DPP 26 December  2024 daily practice problems for 2025 aspirants from the Chemistry section:

Question 1: Given two statements below:

Statement I : In Cl2 molecule the covalent radius is double of the atomic radius of chlorine.

Statement II : Radius of anionic species is always greater than their parent atomic radius.

Choose the most appropriate answer from options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer (D)

Question 2: Refining using liquation method is the most suitable for metals with:

(A) Low melting point

(B) High boiling point

(C) High electrical conductivity

(D) Less tendency to be soluble in melts than impurities

Answer (A)

Question 3: Which of the following can be used to prevent the decomposition of H2O2?

(A) Urea

(B) Formaldehyde

(C) Formic acid

(D) Ethanol

Answer (A)

Question 4: Reaction of BeCl2 with LiAlH4 gives :

(A) AlCl3

(B) BeH2

(C) LiH

(D) LiCl

(E) BeAlH4

Choose the correct answer from options given below :

(A) (A), (D) and (E)

(B) (A), (B) and (D)

(C) (D) and (E)

(D) (B), (C) and (D)

Answer (B)

Question 5: The dark purple colour of KMnO4 disappears in the titration with oxalic acid in acidic medium. The overall change in the oxidation number of manganese in the reaction is :

(A) 5

(B) 1

(C) 7

(D) 2

Answer (A)

JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024: Mathematics

Candidates can check out the JEE Main DPP 26 December 2024 daily practice problems for 2025 aspirants from Maths section:

Problem 1: In a triangle PQR, the co-ordinates of the points P and Q are (–2, 4) and (4, –2) respectively. If the equation of the perpendicular bisector of PR is 2x – y + 2 = 0, then the centre of the circumcircle of the DPQR is

(1) (–2, –2)

(2) (0, 2)

(3) (1, 4)

(4) (–1, 0)

Solution (1)

Problem 2: The area of the triangle with vertices A(z), B(iz) and C(z +iz) is

(1) ½ |z|^2

(2) ½ |z+iz|^2

(3) 1/2

(4) 1

Solution (1)

Problem 3: If cot–1(a) = cot–12 + cot–18 + cot–118 + cot–132 +... upto 100 terms, then a is :

(1) 1.01

(2) 1.02

(3) 1.03

(4) 1.00

Solution (1)

Problem 4: Choose the incorrect statement about the two circles whose equations are given below :

x2 + y2 – 10x – 10y + 41 = 0 and

x2 + y2 – 16x – 10y + 80 = 0

(1)  Distance between two centres is the average of radii of both the circles

(2)  Circles have two intersection points

(3)  Both circles pass through the centre of the each other

(4)  Both circles¢ centres lie inside region of one another

Solution (4)

Problem 5: The line 2x – y + 1 = 0 is a tangent to the circle at the point (2, 5) and the centre of the circle lies on x – 2y = 4. Then, the radius of the circle is

(1) 3(5)^½

(2) 5(3)^½

(3) 4(5)^½

(4)  5(4)^½

Solution (1)

Also Read |
JEE Main DPP 25 December 2024: Daily practice problems for 2025 aspirants
NEET Daily Practice Questions 25 December 2024: DPP for 2025 aspirants

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