Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure JEE Main Questions 2025: Important Practice Questions with PYQs

Soham Mitra

Updated On: December 12, 2024 02:33 PM | JEE Main

Want to master the Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure chapter of JEE Main? Check out the important JEE Main Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure questions for practice from this article.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure JEE Main Questions 2025 Important Practice Questions

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure  JEE Main Questions 2025: The JEE Main 2025 aspirants must be aware of the JEE Main Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure questions as comprehending the correct approaches and methods are required to ace the JEE Main Chemistry paper. The  Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure chapter explains how atoms come together to form molecules, creating a variety of substance candidates and can find a minimum of 3 - 4 questions from the Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure chapter in the JEE Main 2025 exam. Hence, it is crucial that candidates habituate themselves with the important practice questions of the Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure chapter for JEE Main 2025. Candidates are advised to read this article thoroughly for the JEE Main Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure questions along with their solutions.

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JEE Main 2025 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Important Questions

Candidates can check the practice questions for JEE Main Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 2025 along with their solutions as provided in the table below.

Serial No.

Question

Solution

1.

Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is expected to have the highest melting point?

(1) RbCl

(2) LiCl

(3) KCl

(4) NaCl

NaCl has the highest melting point.

Hence option (4) is the answer.

2.

Which of the following are arranged in an increasing order of their bond strengths?

(1) O2– < O2 < O2+ < O22-

(2) O22- < O2– < O2 < O2+

(3) O2– < O22- < O2 < O2+

(4) O2+ < O2 < O2– < O22-

Higher the bond order, stronger the bonds. The increasing order is O22- < O2– < O2 < O2+.

Hence option (2) is the answer.

3.

Bond distance in HF is 9.17 × 10-11m. Dipole moment of HF is 6.104 × 10–30 Cm. The per cent ionic character in HF will be : (electron charge = 1.60 × 10-19 C)

(1) 61.0%

(2) 38.0%

(3) 35.5%

(4) 41.5%

Given Bond distance = 9.17 × 10-11m.

Dipole moment = 6.104 × 10–30 Cm

% iconic character = 6.104 × 10–30× 100 / (1.60 × 10-19×9.17 × 10-11)

= 41.5%

Hence option (4) is the answer.

4.

The formation of molecular complex BF3 – NH3 results in a change in the hybridisation of boron

(1) From sp3 to sp3d

(2) From sp2 to dsp2

(3) From sp3 to sp2

(4) From sp2 to sp3

In BF3, Boron atom has 3 bond pairs of electrons and 0 lone pairs of electrons. It is sp2 hybridized. In F3B ← NH3, Boron atom has 4 bond pairs of electrons and 0 lone pairs of electrons. It is sp3 hybridized. So the formation of molecular complex results in a change in the hybridization of boron from sp2 to sp3.

Hence option (4) is the answer.

5.

Which of the following has the square planar structure :

(1) NH4+

(2) CCl4

(3) XeF4

(4) BF4–

Hybridization of XeF4 sp3d2

It has a square planar shape.

Hence option (3) is the answer.

6.

2. Among the following species which two have a trigonal bipyramidal shape?

(1) NI3 (2) I3– (3) SO32- (4) NO3–

(1) II and III

(2) III and IV

(3) I and IV

(4) I and III

Let us find the hybridization (H) and shape of given species.

(1) For NI3, H = ½ (5+3) = 8/2 = 4 → sp3 hybridized state. It is trigonal pyramidal in shape.

(2) For I3–, H = ½ (7+2+1) = 10/2 = 5 → sp3d hybridized state. It is linear in shape.

(3) For SO32-, H = ½ (6+2) = 8/2 = 4 → sp3 hybridized state. It is trigonal pyramidal in shape.

(4) For NO3–, H = ½ (5+1) = 6/2 = 3 → sp2 hybridized state. It is trigonal planar in shape.

Hence option (4) is the answer.

7.

The catenation tendency of C, Si and Ge is in the order Ge < Si < C. The bond energies (in kJ $mol-1 of C — C, Si —Si and Ge—Ge bonds are respectively :

(1) 348, 260, 297

(2) 348, 297, 260

(3) 297, 348, 260

(4) 260, 297, 348

Bond energy order is C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge.

Hence option (2) is the answer.

8.

Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members?

(1) N02 and C02

(2) N02 and 03

(3) SiF4 and C02

(4) SiF4 and N02

N02 and 03 have angular shapes. So they will have a net dipole moment.

Hence option (2) is the answer.

9.

The hybridisation of orbitals of N atom in NO3–, NO2+, NH4+ are respectively:

(1) sp2, sp3, sp

(2) sp, sp3, sp2

(3) sp, sp2, sp3

(4) sp2, sp, sp3

In NO3, the central N atom has 3 bonding domains and zero lone pairs of electrons.

In NO2, the central N atom has 2 bonding domains and zero lone pairs of electrons.

In NH4, the central N atom has 4 bonding domains and zero lone pairs of electrons.

The Hybridization of N atom in NO3–, NO2+, NH4+ are sp2, sp, sp3 respectively.

Hence option (4) is the answer.

10.

Stability of the species Li2, Li2– and Li2+ increases in the order of :

(1) Li2 < Li2+ < Li2–

(2) Li2– < Li2+ < Li2

(3) Li2 < Li2 < Li2+

(4) Li2– < Li2 < Li2+

The bond order of Li2 is 1. The bond order of Li2+ is 0.5. The bond order of Li2– is 0.5. Stability will depend on the bond order. Li2+ is more stable than Li2– because the higher interelectronic repulsion in Li2– makes it the least stable. So the order is Li2 > Li2+ >Li2–.

Hence option (2) is the answer.

11.

In which of the following sets, all the given species are isostructural?

(1) BF3, NF3, PF3, AlF3

(2) PCl3, AlCl3, BCl3, SbCl3

(3) BF4–, CCl4, NH4+,PCl4+

(4) CO2, NO2, ClO2, SiO2

BF4–, CCl4, NH4+,PCl4+ are tetrahedral.

Hence option (3) is the answer.

12.

Bond order and magnetic nature of CN– are respectively

(1) 3, diamagnetic

(2) 2.5, paramagnetic

(3) 3, paramagnetic

(4) 2.5, diamagnetic

Bond order = ½ [nb – na]

= ½ [ 10-4]

= ½ (6)

= 3

It does not have unpaired electrons. So, it is diamagnetic.

Hence option (1) is the answer.

13.

Among the following, the species having the smallest bond is :

(1) NO

(2) NO+

(3) O2

(4) NO–

The bond order of given molecules are:

NO = 2.5, NO+ = 3, O2 = 2, NO– = 2

Larger the bond order, the smaller the bond length.

NO+ has the largest bond order 3.

Therefore, it will have the smallest bond.

Hence option (2) is the answer.

14.

The compound of Xenon with zero dipole moment is :

(1) XeO3

(2) XeO2

(3) XeF4

(4) XeOF4

XeF4 has dipole moment zero.

Hence option (3) is the answer.

15.

The molecule having the smallest bond angle is :

(1) PCl3

(2) NCl3

(3) AsCl3

(4) SbCl3

Bond angle order NCl3 > PCl3 > AsCl3 > SbCl3.

Hence option (4) is the answer.

16.

In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy has increased and also the magnetic behaviour has changed from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?

(1) NO → NO+

(2) O2 → O2+

(3) N2 → N2+

(4) C2 → C2+

During the ionisation of NO → NO+, the bond order changes from 2.5 to 3. Also magnetic character changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic.

During the ionisation of O2 → O2+, the bond order increases from 2 to 2.5 and the magnetic character changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic.

During the ionisation of N2 → N2+, the bond order decreases from 3 to 2.5 and the magnetic behaviour changes from diamagnetic to paramagnetic.

During the ionisation of C2→ C2+, the bond order decreases from 2 to 1.5 and the magnetic behaviour changes from diamagnetic to paramagnetic.

Hence option (1) is the answer.

17.

Which of the following statements is true?

(1) HF is less polar than HBr

(2) absolutely pure water does not contain any ions

(3) chemical bond formation take place when forces of attraction overcome the forces of repulsion

(4) in covalency transference of electron takes place

Chemical bond formation takes place when forces of attraction overcome the forces of repulsion.

Hence option (3) is the answer.

18.

The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which of the following statements is true for these two species?

(1)Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO

(2)Bond length is unpredictable

(3)Bond length in NO+ in equal to that in NO

(4)Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+

When bond order increases, bond length decreases. So the bond length in NO is greater than in NO+.

Hence option (4) is the answer.

19.

The structure of IF7 is :

(1) octahedral

(2) pentagonal bipyramid

(3) square pyramid

(4) trigonal bipyramid

For IF7, hybridisation – sp3d3. The shape is pentagonal bipyramidal.

Hence option (2) is the answer.

20.

The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is

(1) One sigma, two pi

(2) One sigma, one pi

(3) Two sigma, one pi

(4) Two sigma, two pi

CaC2 → Ca+2 +C22-

–C ≡ C–

Number of sigma bond is 1 and number of pi bond is 2.

Hence option (1) is the answer.

21.

Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic?

(1) NO

( 2) O3

(3) N2

(4) CO

NO has an unpaired electron. So it is paramagnetic in nature.

Hence option (1) is the answer.

22.

The maximum number of 90° angles between bond pair of electrons is observed in

(1) dsp3 hybridization

(2) sp3d2 hybridization

(3) dsp2 hybridization

(4) sp3d hybridization

sp3d2 hybridisation has an octahedral configuration. All the bond angles are 90° in the structure.

Hence option (2) is the answer.

23.

Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound :

(1) AlCl3

(2) MgCl2

(3) FeCl2

(4) SnCl2

Al+3 is having the highest polarizing power than other compounds having greater covalent character.

Hence option (1) is the answer.

24.

Which one of the following molecules is expected to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour?

(1) C2

(2) N2

(3) O2

(4) S2

C2 and N2 have no unpaired electrons. So they exhibit diamagnetic behaviour.

25.

Oxidation state of sulphur in anions SO32-, S2O42- and S2O62- increases in the orders

(1) S2O62- < S2O42- < SO32-

(2) SO32- < S2O42- < S2O62-

(3) S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62-

(4) S2O42- < S2O62- < SO32-

The oxidation state of sulphur in SO32- is +4. The Oxidation state of sulphur in S2O42- is +3 and in S2O62- is +5. So the order is S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62-

Hence option (3) is the answer.

26.

The states of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3B03) are respectively

(1) sp2 and sp2 (2) sp3 and sp3

(3) sp3 and sp2 (4) sp2 and sp3

Hybridization of B is sp2 and O is sp3

Hence option (4) is the answer.

27.

The bond dissociation energy of B–F in BF3 is 646 kJ mol-1 whereas that of C–F in CF4 is 515 kJ mol–1. The correct reason for higher B–F bond dissociation energy as compared to that of C–F is

(1) Significant pπ – pπ interaction between B and F in BF3 whereas there is no possibility of such interaction between C and F in CF4.

(2) Lower degree of pπ – pπ interaction between B and F in BF3 than that

between C and F in CF4

(3) Smaller size of B-atom as compared to that of C-atom

(4) Stronger bond between B and F in BF3 as compared to that between C and F in CF4.

Because of pπ – pπ back bonding in BF3 molecule, all B-F bonds have partial double bond character.

Hence option (1) is the answer.

28.

Among the following the molecule with the lowest dipole moment is :

(1) CHCl3

(2) CH2Cl2

(3) CCl4

(4) CH3Cl

The order of the dipole moment is CCl4 < CHCl3< CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl. So CCl4 has the lowest dipole moment.

Hence option (3) is the answer.

29.

In which of the following species is the underlined carbon having sp3 hybridisation?

(1) CH3COOH

(2) CH3CH2OH

(3) CH3COCH3

(4) CH2=CH–CH3

Only in CH3CH2OH, carbon has sp3 hybridisation.

In other molecules, the carbon atom has multiple bonds,

Hence option (2) is the answer.

30.

Which of the following has a maximum number of lone pairs associated with Xe?

(1) XeO3

(2) XeF4

(3) XeF6

(4) XeF2

XeO3 has 1 lone pair of electrons. XeF4 has 2 lone pairs of electrons. XeF6 has 1 lone pair of electrons. XeF2 has 3 lone pairs of electrons. XeF2 has a maximum number of lone pairs of electrons.

Hence option (4) is the answer.

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We hope this article has been helpful for you to be aware of the Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure JEE Main Questions 2025. For more information related to the JEE Main 2025 exam, stay tuned to CollegeDekho! Candidates can also fill our Common Application Form to seek admission into private engineering universities.

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FAQs

Is 80 marks in chemistry easy to score in the JEE Mains exam?

In the JEE Main Chemistry section, the questions asked are generally straightforward and the difficulty level is relatively lower. With the correct preparation approach in place, candidates can easily score 80+ in the JEE Mains Chemistry section.

 

Is the JEE Mains chemistry section easy?

Chemistry is considered to be the rank decider for the majority of candidates in any engineering entrance examination because it mostly deals with the basics and. In comparison to the Mathematics and Physics questions asked in the JEE Main exam, Chemistry questions are more theoretical than calculative, making it relatively easier for candidates to secure good marks.

Is NCERT enough for the JEE Mains 2025 preparation?

NCERT books are very important to prepare for the JEE Main 2025 exam. The JEE Main exam follows the CBSE syllabus for 11th and 12th classes, so NCERT books are considered to be the most reliable and necessary study materials. NCERT books explain basic fundamental concepts in a simple and clear way.

 

Is it easy to score 99 percentile in the JEE Mains exam?

To score a 99+ percentile in the JEE Main 2025 exam, candidates require more than just knowing the JEE Main syllabus, as it required consistent practice, strategic revision, time management, and the ability to solve complex problems under pressure. However, with the appropriate resources, one can achieve these requirements.

Can I leave chemistry for the JEE Main exam?

All sections namely Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry are mandatory in the JEE Main exam, with questions covering the entire JEE Main syllabus. To be eligible for admission, candidates must achieve the minimum qualifying marks in each subject and the overall aggregate.

 

Will the JEE Mains syllabus change in 2025?

Candidates can study from the NCERT textbooks of class 11 and 12 Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics to cover the JEE Mains syllabus. No changes have been made to the JEE Main Syllabus 2025. NTA removed several topics of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics last year from the JEE Main syllabus.

Is 75% required for the JEE Main exam?

Candidates must keep in mind that there is no requirement of 75% marks in class 12 for appearing in the JEE Mains exam. The JEE Main eligibility criteria of minimum 75% marks in class 12 is required at the time of securing admission across NITs, IIITs and GFTIs. Candidates can apply and appear in the JEE Mains 2025 exam irrespective of their class 12 marks.

 

Is PYQ enough for the JEE Mains preparation?

Previous year question papers are an important source for the JEE Main preparations. However, relying solely upon PYQs is not enough to fully prepare for the JEE Mains exam. Candidates must also focus on covering the entire syllabus, developing strong conceptual understanding, practising time management, and attempting mock tests.

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