AIBE 18 Answer Key 2023 Unofficial: The Bar Council of India successfully conducted the AIBE 18 exam 2023 on December 10, and the candidates can now check the AIBE official answer key 2023 here. The candidates can download the set-wise AIBE 18 answer key 2023 viz., Set A, B, C and D. Usually, the questions across all the sets are the same but the question number changes. The candidates can check the question-wise AIBE 18 answer key here. Official AIBE XVIII answer key 2023 has been released on December 12.
AIBE 18 Official Answer Key 2023 (Released)
Here is the download link of AIBE 18 official answer key 2023 PDF -Set Code | PDF Link |
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Set A | AIBE 18 Set A Answer Key 2023 |
Set B | AIBE 18 Set B Answer Key 2023 |
Set C | AIBE 18 Set C Answer Key 2023 |
Set D | AIBE 18 Set D Answer Key 2023 |
Also Read l
AIBE 18 Qualifying Marks 2023: Check pass marks for all categories |
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AIBE 18 Result Date 2023 |
AIBE 18 Unofficial Answer Key 2023 (All Sets)
Here is the unofficial answer key of AIBE 18 2023 for all 100 questions -
S.No | Question | Answer |
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1. | Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the arbitration agreement as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996? | An arbitration agreement may be written as well as an oral |
2. | In which of the following circumstances an arbitrator may not be challenged as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996? | When he possesses the qualification agreed upon by the party |
3. | When may two persons be said to be related to each other by half-blood in accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act 1955? | When they are descended from a common ancestor by different wives |
4. | Which of the following is generally not considered a valid condition for a Hindi Marriage as per the Marriage Act 1955? | The parties should be within the degrees of prohibited relationship |
5. | Section 13 (1) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides for the following | Grounds for divorce |
6. | What is the meaning of batil marriage in Muslim Law? | Void Marriage |
7. | What is a contract of marriage which may be dissolved by the wife under a power delegated to her under Muslim Law? | Talaq-i-tafweez |
8. | A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the following law? | The Hindu Marriage Act 1955 and The Special Marriage Act 1954 |
9. | Through which of the following Amendment Acts the rights in the coparcenary made available to a girl child as well? | The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 |
10. | What should be the age difference between the adoptive father and his adopted daughter | 21 years |
11. | Which of the following cases may be considered as the first reported case of PIL? | Hussainaru Khaboon vs State of.... |
12. | Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India? | Justice Bhagwati |
13. | Against which of the following a PIL cannot be filed? | Against a private party |
14. | In the light of the guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India on which of the following issue a PIL cannot be entertained by the Court? | Petition from Jail for pre-mature release |
15. | In which of the landmark cases it held that Principles of Natural Justice were..... | AK Kraipak vs Union of India |
16. | In which of the following judgments the Supreme Court comprehensively reconsider the SP Sampath Lumar vs Union of India case? | L Chandra Kumar vs Union of India |
17. | Who among the following defined administrative law as 'the law relating to the control of government power? | Ivor Jennings |
18. | What penalty is prescribed for persons illegally practicing in courts under the Advocate Act, of 1961? | Imprisonment up to 6 months |
19. | Which provision of the Advocate Act of 1961 empowers the BCI to prescribe the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates? | Section 49 |
20. | Which of the following is incorrect according to the BCI rules | An advocate can plead in any manner in which he is himself pecuniarily interested |
21. | Which of the following authorities acts as an appellate authority against the order made by the disciplinary committee.... | Supreme Court of India |
22. | In which of the following situations a one-person company will mandatorily... | In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds 25 lakh rupees |
23. | What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company as per the Companies Act 2013? | 3 |
24. | In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India explains the Precautionary principle in details? | MC Mehta v Kamal Nath |
25. | Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in the environmental law | MC Mehta v Kamal Nath |
26. | In which of the following cases, Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was stuck down by the Supreme Court? | Shreya Singhal vs the Union of India |
27. | In which of the following case, an electronic record shall not be attributed to the originator as per the IT Act, 2000? | Electronic record sent by an unauthorized person |
28. | What is the maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act 1961? | 26 weeks |
29. | For what duration is a woman entitled to leave with wages for a tubectomy operation as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961? | 2 weeks |
30. | What should be the minimum number of workers originally employed in any factory.... | 250 workers |
31. | Who among the following is not included in the definition of a workman as per the Industrial Disputes Act, of 1947? | A supervisor drawing a monthly salary of Rs. 12,000 |
32. | Who has defined tort as 'tortious liability arises from the breach of duty primarily fixed by law... | Winfield |
33. | Gloucester Grammar School case relates to which of the following important maxims? | Damnum Sine Injuria |
34. | Which of the following provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 relates to no-fault liability? | Section 140 |
35. | How many consumer rights are identified under the Consumer Protection Act, of 2019? | 6 |
36 | Which of the following body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act 2019 is authorized to render advice.... | Central Consumer Protection Council |
37 | Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India states that no tax can levied or collected except by authority of law? | Article 265 |
38 | Which of the following would be the first previous year in case of a business or profession newly set up on 31st March 2020 as per the Income Tax Act, 1961? | Start from 1st April 2019 and will end on 31 March 2020 |
39 | As per the Income Tax Act, of 1961, a person is said to be a resident of India in any previous year.... | 182 days |
40 | Income is defined under which of the following provision of the Income Tax Act, of 1961? | Section 2 (24) |
41 | Which of the following is not a fraud as per the Indian Contract Act, of 1872? | Mere silence if not duty bound to speak |
42 | Which of the following statements is correct if 'A' intended to deceive 'B' Fasley.... | Contract is voidable (Option C) |
43 | Which of the following minimums can be granted only by the....... | Pecuniary Injuction (Option B) |
44 | Contract act question...... | Section 74 |
45 | what is the default interest payable under section 63 A........... | 9% per annum |
46 | Which of the following is the time limit given under section 17 of the...... | A period of 18 years from the date of transfer |
47 | Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable Instrument Act 1881? | Hundi |
48 | In the light of Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 at what rate will be charged | 18% per annum |
49 | Within what period from the date of publication of the declaration if no award is made the entire...... | 12 months |
50 | Imagine an IPL team setting up a company to sell its own range of clothes........ | Trademarks |
51 | What is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give their prior consent.... | 80% |
52 | How long do patents usually last? | 20 years |
53 | The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian Constitution is motivated by the experience of the following country? | America |
54 | Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public duties by the authority? | Mandamus |
55 | Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act had made the provision for publishing the Hindi Translation of the Constitution? | 58th Amendment |
56 | Which of the following is the landmark judgment on Colourable Legislation? | State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh |
57 | Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in the Re Berubari Case? | The Consitution Ninth Amendment Act, 1960 |
58 | Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution is relevant for solving questions on repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law? | Article 254 |
59 | What transition period was provided in the Constitution of India for changing the official language of the Union from English to Hindi? | 15 years |
60 | In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation of a single post in a cadre? | Chakradhar Paswan v State of Bihar |
61 | Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may also be considered as a violation of which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution? | Article 19(1)(g) |
62 | Which of the following doctrine has been applied to resolve the conflict between Article 25(2)(b)...... | Doctrine of Harmonious Construction |
63 | In which of the following situations Indian Penal Code, of 1860 not apply? | Any person committing an offense targeting computer resources located in any country |
64 | How many types of punishment are currently existing under the Indian Penal Code, of 1860? | 5 |
65 | A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. In the course of such fencing while playing fairly... | No offence |
66 | In which of the following situations right of private defence can not extend to causing death? | In case the assault is reflecting the intention of causing simple hurt |
67 | For which of the following section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the word benefit does not.... | Section 89 |
68 | X intentionally pulls up a woman's veil.... | Criminal Force |
69 | What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for a person who maims any minor in order.... | Imprisonment for life and fine |
70 | X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives him... | Imprisonment upto 2 years or with a fine or both |
71 | Which of the following sentence is an Assistant Sessions Judge authorized to pass as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? | Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years |
72 | A person arrested by a private person for committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence shall be re-arrested by a police officer... | Section 41 |
73 | Under which of the following situation wife is not entitled to maintenance under Section 125... | Voluntarily wife refuses to live with husband |
74 | Which of the following procedure is dealt under Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? | Recording of confession statement |
75 | Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the dairy of proceedings in the investigation as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? | The Dairy may be used as an evidence |
76 | In which of the following cases, manner of committing offence is not required to be mentioned in the charge... | 'A' is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place |
77 | Which of the following offences may be tried summarily as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? | Offence punishable with life imprisonment |
78 | Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provides for references to High Court? | Section 395 |
79 | A person accussed of the following offence may not be granted bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. | Section 376AB, Section 376DA, Section 376DB |
80 | Which of the following acts if done by any Magistrate, even in good faith without being empowered... | Attaches property under Section 83 of CrPC |
81 | Which of the following is material for deciding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the light of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? | Averments made in the plaint |
82 | Which of the following cannot be considered as the suit of civil nature for Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? | Suit for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings |
83 | Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 makes the doctrine of res judicata... | Section 11, Explanation VI |
84 | In which of the following situations a court will not issue summons for personal appearance to the defendant | If defendant resides 250 miles away from the court |
85 | In which of the following situation plaintiff is precluded from bringing a fresh suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? | Dismissal of suit in because plaintiff did not appear |
86 | How many times at max. may an adjournment be granted to a party during the hearing of the suit as per... | Three times |
87 | Which of the following Amendment Act made the provision in the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 to produce a witness without a summons? | The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 |
88 | Which of the following is not included in the word costs as provided under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? | Fooding and lodging expenses incurred |
89 | What period is prescribed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for the defendant to enter an appearance for filing address for... | Ten days from the date of receiving of summons |
90 | Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the appellate court may remit an issue for trial to the lower court? | Order XLI Rule 25 |
91 | 'A' is accused of the murder of 'B' by beating him... | Whatever said by by-standers at the time of beating |
92 | Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, of 1872 says that the confession to a police officer shall not be proved against him? | Section 25 |
93 | Under which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 dying declaration may be admitted as evidence? | Section 32 |
94 | Which of the following is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 pertaining to proof of contents of documents? | Contents of documents may be proved either by primary or secondary evidence |
95 | Which of the following is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence Act, of 1872? | Leading questions may be asked in cross-examination |
96 | In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India clarify the admissibility of electronic record as evidence? | Anvar PV v PK Basheer |
97 | Which of the following is an incorrect statement in light of the Indian Evidence Act, of 1872? | Admissions are conclusive as to the matters admitted |
98 | Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the hearsay rule? | Section 32 (1) |
99 | Which of the following is not a recognized alternate dispute resolution mechanism under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 | Negotiation |
100 | Which of the following is an incorrect statement with respect to Lok Adalat | Lok Adalat can deal with all civil & criminal cases |
Also read |
CLAT Result 2024 | AILET Answer Key 2024 | CLAT Toppers 2024 |
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AIBE result 2023 is expected to be released within 30-40 days after the exam. Therefore, the candidates can expect the result by the first week of January 2024. The candidates must note that the answer key mentioned above is unofficial and there might be some errors.
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