AIBE 18 Answer Key 2023 (Available): Set A, B, C and D PDF Download

Sakunth Kumar

Updated On: December 12, 2023 11:59 AM

AIBE 18 answer key 2023 official and unofficial are available here for all sets viz., Set A, B, C and D. The candidates can find the question-wise answers of AIBE 18 exam 2023 here.
AIBE 18 Answer Key 2023 UnofficialAIBE 18 Answer Key 2023 Unofficial

AIBE 18 Answer Key 2023 Unofficial: The Bar Council of India successfully conducted the AIBE 18 exam 2023 on December 10, and the candidates can now check the AIBE official answer key 2023 here. The candidates can download the set-wise AIBE 18 answer key 2023 viz., Set A, B, C and D. Usually, the questions across all the sets are the same but the question number changes. The candidates can check the question-wise AIBE 18 answer key here.  Official AIBE XVIII answer key 2023 has been released on December 12.

AIBE 18 Official Answer Key 2023 (Released)

Here is the download link of AIBE 18 official answer key 2023 PDF -
Set Code PDF Link
Set A AIBE 18 Set A Answer Key 2023
Set B AIBE 18 Set B Answer Key 2023
Set C AIBE 18 Set C Answer Key 2023
Set D AIBE 18 Set D Answer Key 2023

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AIBE 18 Qualifying Marks 2023: Check pass marks for all categories
AIBE 18 Result Date 2023

AIBE 18 Unofficial Answer Key 2023 (All Sets)

Here is the unofficial answer key of AIBE 18 2023 for all 100 questions  -

S.No Question Answer
1. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the arbitration agreement as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996? An arbitration agreement may be written as well as an oral
2. In which of the following circumstances an arbitrator may not be challenged as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996? When he possesses the qualification agreed upon by the party
3. When may two persons be said to be related to each other by half-blood in accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act 1955? When they are descended from a common ancestor by different wives
4. Which of the following is generally not considered a valid condition for a Hindi Marriage as per the Marriage Act 1955? The parties should be within the degrees of prohibited relationship
5. Section 13 (1) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides for the following Grounds for divorce
6. What is the meaning of batil marriage in Muslim Law? Void Marriage
7. What is a contract of marriage which may be dissolved by the wife under a power delegated to her under Muslim Law? Talaq-i-tafweez
8. A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the following law? The Hindu Marriage Act 1955 and The Special Marriage Act 1954
9. Through which of the following Amendment Acts the rights in the coparcenary made available to a girl child as well? The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
10. What should be the age difference between the adoptive father and his adopted daughter 21 years
11. Which of the following cases may be considered as the first reported case of PIL? Hussainaru Khaboon vs State of....
12. Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India? Justice Bhagwati
13. Against which of the following a PIL cannot be filed? Against a private party
14. In the light of the guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India on which of the following issue a PIL cannot be entertained by the Court? Petition from Jail for pre-mature release
15. In which of the landmark cases it held that Principles of Natural Justice were..... AK Kraipak vs Union of India
16. In which of the following judgments the Supreme Court comprehensively reconsider the SP Sampath Lumar vs Union of India case? L Chandra Kumar vs Union of India
17. Who among the following defined administrative law as 'the law relating to the control of government power? Ivor Jennings
18. What penalty is prescribed for persons illegally practicing in courts under the Advocate Act, of 1961? Imprisonment up to 6 months
19. Which provision of the Advocate Act of 1961 empowers the BCI to prescribe the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates? Section 49
20. Which of the following is incorrect according to the BCI rules An advocate can plead in any manner in which he is himself pecuniarily interested
21. Which of the following authorities acts as an appellate authority against the order made by the disciplinary committee.... Supreme Court of India
22. In which of the following situations a one-person company will mandatorily... In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds 25 lakh rupees
23. What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company as per the Companies Act 2013? 3
24. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India explains the Precautionary principle in details? MC Mehta v Kamal Nath
25. Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in the environmental law MC Mehta v Kamal Nath
26. In which of the following cases, Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was stuck down by the Supreme Court? Shreya Singhal vs the Union of India
27. In which of the following case, an electronic record shall not be attributed to the originator as per the IT Act, 2000? Electronic record sent by an unauthorized person
28. What is the maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act 1961? 26 weeks
29. For what duration is a woman entitled to leave with wages for a tubectomy operation as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961? 2 weeks
30. What should be the minimum number of workers originally employed in any factory.... 250 workers
31. Who among the following is not included in the definition of a workman as per the Industrial Disputes Act, of 1947? A supervisor drawing a monthly salary of Rs. 12,000
32. Who has defined tort as 'tortious liability arises from the breach of duty primarily fixed by law... Winfield
33. Gloucester Grammar School case relates to which of the following important maxims? Damnum Sine Injuria
34. Which of the following provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 relates to no-fault liability? Section 140
35. How many consumer rights are identified under the Consumer Protection Act, of 2019? 6
36 Which of the following body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act 2019 is authorized to render advice.... Central Consumer Protection Council
37 Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India states that no tax can levied or collected except by authority of law? Article 265
38 Which of the following would be the first previous year in case of a business or profession newly set up on 31st March 2020 as per the Income Tax Act, 1961? Start from 1st April 2019 and will end on 31 March 2020
39 As per the Income Tax Act, of 1961, a person is said to be a resident of India in any previous year.... 182 days
40 Income is defined under which of the following provision of the Income Tax Act, of 1961? Section 2 (24)
41 Which of the following is not a fraud as per the Indian Contract Act, of 1872? Mere silence if not duty bound to speak
42 Which of the following statements is correct if 'A' intended to deceive 'B' Fasley.... Contract is voidable (Option C)
43 Which of the following minimums can be granted only by the....... Pecuniary Injuction (Option B)
44 Contract act question...... Section 74
45 what is the default interest payable under section 63 A........... 9% per annum
46 Which of the following is the time limit given under section 17 of the...... A period of 18 years from the date of transfer
47 Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable Instrument Act 1881? Hundi
48 In the light of Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 at what rate will be charged 18% per annum
49 Within what period from the date of publication of the declaration if no award is made the entire...... 12 months
50 Imagine an IPL team setting up a company to sell its own range of clothes........ Trademarks
51 What is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give their prior consent.... 80%
52 How long do patents usually last? 20 years
53 The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian Constitution is motivated by the experience of the following country? America
54 Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public duties by the authority? Mandamus
55 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act had made the provision for publishing the Hindi Translation of the Constitution? 58th Amendment
56 Which of the following is the landmark judgment on Colourable Legislation? State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh
57 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in the Re Berubari Case? The Consitution Ninth Amendment Act, 1960
58 Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution is relevant for solving questions on repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law? Article 254
59 What transition period was provided in the Constitution of India for changing the official language of the Union from English to Hindi? 15 years
60 In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation of a single post in a cadre? Chakradhar Paswan v State of Bihar
61 Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may also be considered as a violation of which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution? Article 19(1)(g)
62 Which of the following doctrine has been applied to resolve the conflict between Article 25(2)(b)...... Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
63 In which of the following situations Indian Penal Code, of 1860 not apply? Any person committing an offense targeting computer resources located in any country
64 How many types of punishment are currently existing under the Indian Penal Code, of 1860? 5
65 A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. In the course of such fencing while playing fairly... No offence
66 In which of the following situations right of private defence can not extend to causing death? In case the assault is reflecting the intention of causing simple hurt
67 For which of the following section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the word benefit does not.... Section 89
68 X intentionally pulls up a woman's veil.... Criminal Force
69 What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for a person who maims any minor in order.... Imprisonment for life and fine
70 X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives him... Imprisonment upto 2 years or with a fine or both
71 Which of the following sentence is an Assistant Sessions Judge authorized to pass as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years
72 A person arrested by a private person for committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence shall be re-arrested by a police officer... Section 41
73 Under which of the following situation wife is not entitled to maintenance under Section 125... Voluntarily wife refuses to live with husband
74 Which of the following procedure is dealt under Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? Recording of confession statement
75 Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the dairy of proceedings in the investigation as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? The Dairy may be used as an evidence
76 In which of the following cases, manner of committing offence is not required to be mentioned in the charge... 'A' is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place
77 Which of the following offences may be tried summarily as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? Offence punishable with life imprisonment
78 Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provides for references to High Court? Section 395
79 A person accussed of the following offence may not be granted bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. Section 376AB, Section 376DA, Section 376DB
80 Which of the following acts if done by any Magistrate, even in good faith without being empowered... Attaches property under Section 83 of CrPC
81 Which of the following is material for deciding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the light of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? Averments made in the plaint
82 Which of the following cannot be considered as the suit of civil nature for Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? Suit for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings
83 Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 makes the doctrine of res judicata... Section 11, Explanation VI
84 In which of the following situations a court will not issue summons for personal appearance to the defendant If defendant resides 250 miles away from the court
85 In which of the following situation plaintiff is precluded from bringing a fresh suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? Dismissal of suit in because plaintiff did not appear
86 How many times at max. may an adjournment be granted to a party during the hearing of the suit as per... Three times
87 Which of the following Amendment Act made the provision in the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 to produce a witness without a summons? The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002
88 Which of the following is not included in the word costs as provided under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? Fooding and lodging expenses incurred
89 What period is prescribed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for the defendant to enter an appearance for filing address for... Ten days from the date of receiving of summons
90 Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the appellate court may remit an issue for trial to the lower court? Order XLI Rule 25
91 'A' is accused of the murder of 'B' by beating him... Whatever said by by-standers at the time of beating
92 Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, of 1872 says that the confession to a police officer shall not be proved against him? Section 25
93 Under which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 dying declaration may be admitted as evidence? Section 32
94 Which of the following is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 pertaining to proof of contents of documents? Contents of documents may be proved either by primary or secondary evidence
95 Which of the following is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence Act, of 1872? Leading questions may be asked in cross-examination
96 In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India clarify the admissibility of electronic record as evidence? Anvar PV v PK Basheer
97 Which of the following is an incorrect statement in light of the Indian Evidence Act, of 1872? Admissions are conclusive as to the matters admitted
98 Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the hearsay rule? Section 32 (1)
99 Which of the following is not a recognized alternate dispute resolution mechanism under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 Negotiation
100 Which of the following is an incorrect statement with respect to Lok Adalat Lok Adalat can deal with all civil & criminal cases

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AIBE result 2023 is expected to be released within 30-40 days after the exam. Therefore, the candidates can expect the result by the first week of January 2024. The candidates must note that the answer key mentioned above is unofficial and there might be some errors.

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