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The unofficial CUET UG Economics Answer Key 2024 prepared by subject experts can be checked here for all question paper sets Set A, B, C and D.
CUET UG Economics Answer Key 2024 UnofficialCUET UG Economics Answer Key 2024 Unofficial: The National Testing Agency conducted CUET UG Economics exam 2024 on May 16 from 10 AM to 11 AM. The Economics question paper of CUET UG 2024 consists of 50 questions out of which 40 can be answered for 200 marks. Each correct attempt will be awarded 5 marks. As the mode of the Economics exam in CUET 2024 is offline and the official answer keys are released in the first week of June, students can check the unofficial CUET Economics answer key 2024 prepared by subject experts for all 50 questions here. Along with answer key, students can also check the detailed CUET UG Economics question paper analysis 2024 here.
LATEST (July 7) | CUET UG Answer Key 2024 Released: Response sheet PDF with keys download link
| CUET UG 2024 May 17 Answer Key 2024 | CUET UG Expected Cutoff 2024 for All Subjects |
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CUET UG Economics Unofficial Answer Key 2024 (All Sets)
Candidates can find the unofficial answer key of CUET UG Economics PDF for (All sets) in the following table. The questions will be the same in Sets A, B, C and D. Only the question number changes across all sets. Therefore, questions and answers are directly being added here for the benefit of all students irrespective of their set code.
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1. ________ depicts what has actually happened. | (2) Ex-Post |
| 2. If the value of Investment Multiplier is 5 and the increased income is 800 crore in an economy, then find the value of change in the investment in the economy. | (1) Rs 4000 crore |
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3. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Quantitative tools control the extent of money supply by changing the CRR. (B) There are two types of open market operations - outright and upright. (C) A fall in the bank rate can decrease the money supply. (D) Selling of a bond by RBI leads to reduction in quantity of reserves. | (4) (A), (D), and (E) only |
| 4. Paradox of Thrift means: | (1) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of investment in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. |
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5. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (A) Bank Rate (B) Marginal Standing Facility (C) Repo Rate (D) Reverse Repo Rate List-II (I) Securities are pledged in order to repurchase (II) Minimum rate at which funds are provided for long term (III) Also known as Penal Interest Rate (IV) Central Bank borrows funds from commerical banks | (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) |
| 6. Which of the following is not a function of Central Bank ? | (3) It accepts deposits and give loans to people. |
| 7. Article 112 deals with: | (3) Union Budget |
| 8. All those elements which create liability and decrease the assets of government are known as: | (1) Capital Receipts |
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9. Arrange the following elements in correct chfonological sequence (earliest to latest) :
(A) Smithsonian Agreement (B) Bretton Woods Conference (C) Establishment of WTO (D) Gold Standard Choose the correct answer from the options given below: | (2) (D), (B), (A), (C) |
| 10. Under flexible exchange rate, when the price of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency increases, it is called _________. | (2) Appreciation of domestic currency |
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11. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (A) Pegged exchange rate system (B) Managed floating (C) Bretton Woods Conference (D) Third element in BOP List-II (I) Setting up of IMF and World Bank (II) Fixed exchange rate system (III) Dirty floating (IV) Error and Omission Account Choose the correct answer from the options given below: | (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) |
| 12. Casualization of workforce would result in : | (2) Increase in the vulnerability of the workforce. |
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13. Choose the correct chronological sequence in ascending order (earliest to latest) :
(A) Establishment of NABARD (B) FRBMA (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act) (C) Third Five Year Plan (D) Nationalization of RBI | (4) (D), (C), (A), (B) |
| 14. _________ implies that resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of resources and the wastes generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment. | (2) Carrying capacity |
| 15. Government of India enacted the Right to Education Act in 2009 to make free education a Fundamental Right of all children in the age group of __________ years. | (3) 6-14 |
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16. Following are the sources of electricity generation in India. Arrange them in correct sequence on the basis of total power generation capacity (higher to lower):
A) Nuclear (B) Thermal (C) New and renewable energy (D) Hydro Choose the correct answer from the options given below : | (4) (B), (D), (C), (A) |
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17. Arrange the following items in correct sequence:
(A) Competition Act (B) FEMA (C) FERA (D) MRTP Choose the correct answer from the options given below : | (3) (D), (C), (B), (A) |
| 18. The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign was initiated in _______. | (3) 1958 |
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19. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (A) Great Leap Forward (B) Mao Zedong (C) Brundtland Commission (D) Our Common Future List-II (I) Protecting the future generation (II) Aimed at industrialising the country on a massive scale (III) Introduced the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution (IV) Seminar Report that explained sustainable development as meeting the basic needs of all for a better life Choose the correct answer from the options given below | (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) |
| 20. Second phase of Green Revolution is termed from : | (2) mid 1970s to mid 1980s |
| 21. During 1980s, the growth rate in Pakistan improved ontccount of which of the following reasons? | (4) High amount of foreign direct investment inflow |
| 22. When there is unexpected rise in the sales ___________. | (3) There will be unplanned decumulation of inventories. |
| 23. During festive season, the currency deposit ratio ____________. | (2) increases |
| 24. European Monetary Union was created in ___________. | (3) 1999 |
| 25. Identify the correct statement in the context of Circular Flow of Income in a two sector economy: | (3) Firms produce goods and services. |
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26. Identify the correct set of statements.
(A) Ex Ante Saving represents what is actually planned to save. (B) Ex Post Saving represents what is actually planned plan to save. (C) Ex Post Saving depicts what has actually happened. (D) Ex Ante Post Saving represents what is actually saved. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : | (2) (A) and (C) only |
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27. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (Elements) (A) Annual Financial Statement (B) Capital Receipts (C) Capital Payment (D) Export > Import List-II (Features) (I) Create liabilities or reduce financial assets (II) Trade surplus (III) Main budget document (IV) Create financial assets or reduce liabilities Choose the correct answer from the options given below: | (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) |
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Read the following passage and answer the next five questions.
In our quest to increase agricultural production during the last five decades or so, we almost totally neglected... | |
| 28. How is civic authority getting benefitted due to biocomposting? | (4) They have to dispose reduced quantity of waste |
| 29. Choose the correct statement concerned with the passage: | (3) Earthworm takes less time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process. |
| 30. Water bodies including ground water system have suffered due to : | (2) Chemical contamination and increased demand for irrigation |
| 31. In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they __________. | (2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner |
| 32. What should be the suitable title for the above passage? | (1) Biocomposting |
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Read the following passage and answer the next five questions.
India had an independent economy before the advent of the British rule. Though agriculture was the main source of livelihood for most people... | |
| 33. Before the British rule, India was well known for which manufacturing industries' products? | (3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal and precious stones, etc |
| 34. What kind of interests was the colonial government concerned with in the economic policy for Indian industries? | (4) Provide protection and promotion of the econominterests of their home country |
| 35. Choose the economists who estimated India's National Income and Per Capita Income. | (2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirra V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai |
| 36. What was the country's growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the 20th century? | (4) The country's growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year. |
| 37. According to the passage, which of the following statement was true about Indian industries' products? | (3) Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on quality of material used and the high standard of craftsmanship. |
| 38. __________ is a market where economic agents can freely exchange their endowments with each other. | (1) Market economy |
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39. Which of the following are correct statements?
(A) Marginal Utility is the change in Total Utility due to consumption of one additional unit of commodity. (B) Two Indifference Curves intersect each other. (C) Marginal Utility becomes Zero at a level when Total Utility remains constant. (D) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution does not affect Indifference Curve. (E) Indifference Curve slopes downwards from left to right. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : | (2) (A), (C), and (E) only |
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40. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Characteristic) (A) Equilibrium (B) Excess supply (C) Inferior good (D) Price ceiling List-II (Implication) (I) Plans of all the consumers and firms in the market match (II) Demand decreases with an increase in income (III) Supply is greater than market demand (IV) Imposition of upper limit by government Choose the correct answer from the options given below: | (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) |
| 41. When Elasticity of Demand Curve is I at every point on the Demand Curve, this curve is known as: | (3) Rectangular Hyperbola |
| 42. According to the Theory of Consumer Behaviour, Inequality p 1 x 1 + p 2 x 2 ≤ M is called the Consumer's __________. | (4) Budget Behaviour |
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43. Choose the correct statements from the following:
(A) Adam Smith is termed as Father of Modern Economics. (B) J.M. Keynes gave the Theory of Income, Output and Employment. (C) Four Sector Model = C + I + G + (X - M) (D) Store of value is primary function of money. money. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : | (2) (A), (B), and (C) only |
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44. Rearrange the given statements in proper chronological sequence in an ascending order (earliest to latest) :
(A) General theory of Employment, Interest and Money by Keynes. (B) Mahalanobis was made a fellow of Britain's Royal Society. (C) An Inquiry into the Nature and Cause of the Wealth of Nations by Adam Smith. (D) The Economic Consequences of the Peang by Keynes. Choose the correct answer from the options gigen Men below: | (1) (C), (D), (A), (B) |
| 45. If there is no government and no foreign trade then : | (3) G = T = M = X = 0 |
| 46. The value of Nominal GDP is $1100 and the value of Real GDP is $ 1000. Find the value of GDP deflator. | (2) 1.1 |
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47. Identify the correct statements:
(A) Stocks are defined over a period of time. (B) Flow's are defined over a period of time. (C) Flow's are defined at a particular point of time. (D) Stocks are defined at a particular point of time. (E) GVA at factor costs + Indirect Taxes - Subsidies = GVA at market prices. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : | (3) (B), (D), and (E) only |
| 48. If the supply of final goods is assumed to be infinitely.elastic at constant price over a short period of time, Aggregate output is determined solely by the value of Aggregate demand. This is called _________ Principle. | (3) Effective demand |
| 49. Nominal Interest Rate = ___________ | (4) Real Interest Rate + Inflation rate |
| 50. Value of MPS (Marginal Propensity to Save) is increased from 0.4 to 0.5. What would be the impact on Multiplier? | (4) The size of the multiplier would be decreased. |
Also read |
| Link |
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| CUET UG Physics Answer Key 2024 Unofficial |
CUET UG Economics Question Paper Analysis 2024
The detailed question paper analysis of CUET UG Economics 2024 can be checked below -
| Aspect | Analysis |
|---|---|
| Difficulty Level | Moderate |
| Difficulty Level of Microeconomics | Moderate |
| Difficulty Level of Macroeconomics | Easy to Moderate |
| Topics with Maximum Weightage |
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| Were there any out-of-syllabus questions? | Yes, 2-3 questions were reported to be from the deleted syllabus |
| Expected Number of Good Attempts | 35+ questions |
| Was the paper time-consuming? | Somewhat |
NTA will release official answer keys for all CUET UG 2024 papers, including domain subjects, General tests, and Language tests within 2 to 3 days after the conclusion of the exam. CUET 2024 provisional answer key will be available on cuet.samarth.ac.in. You can challenge it by paying a non-refundable online fee of Rs. 200/- per question. The conducting authority of CUET UG 2024 will review the challenges and release final answer keys and results accordingly. No grievance regarding answer keys will be addressed after the declaration of the CUET UG 2024 result or NTA score.\
Marks vs Percentile |
| Range | Expected Percentile |
|---|---|
| 170 Marks | Expected Percentile for 170 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 160 Marks | Expected Percentile for 160 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 150 Marks | Expected Percentile for 150 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 140 Marks | Expected Percentile for 140 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 130 Marks | Expected Percentile for 130 Marks in CUET 2024 |
Percentile vs Marks |
Expected CUET Cutoff 2024 |
| Name of the Subject | Link |
|---|---|
| Chemistry | CUET UG Chemistry Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| English | CUET UG English Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| Biology | CUET UG Biology Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| Economics | CUET UG Economics Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| Mathematics | CUET UG Mathematics Expected Cutoff 2024 |
Subject-wise CUET Marks vs Percentile 2024 and Keys |
| Name of the Subject | Marks vs Percentile Link |
|---|---|
| Biology Marks vs Percentile | CUET UG Biology Expected Percentile Score 2024 |
| English Marks vs Percentile | CUET UG English Expected Percentile Score 2024 |
| General Test Marks vs Percentile | CUET UG General Test Expected Percentile Score 2024 |
| Economics Marks vs Percentile | CUET UG Economics Expected Percentile Score 2024 |
| Physics Marks vs Percentile | CUET UG Physics Expected Percentile Score 2024 |
| Mathematics Marks vs Percentile | CUET UG Mathematics Expected Percentile Score 2024 |
