CUET UG General Test Answer Key 2024 Unofficial (Available): All sets General Test keys PDF download

CUET UG General Test Answer Key 2024 Unofficial

CUET UG General Test Answer Key 2024 Unofficial: The National Testing Agency conducted CUET General Test 2024 exam on May 15 from 5 PM to 6 PM. The General Test question paper of CUET 2024 consists of 50 questions for 250 marks. Unlike other papers of CUET 2024 that are conducted for 200 marks, CUET General Test is for 250 marks. As the mode of exam is offline and the official answer keys are released within 15-20 days, the candidates can meanwhile check the unofficial CUET General Test Answer Key 2024 for Set A, B, C and D.

LATEST (July 7) | CUET UG Answer Key 2024 Released: Response sheet PDF with keys download link

CUET UG General Test Unofficial Answer Key 2024 (All Sets)

The set-wise CUET UG General Test Answer Key 2024 unofficial will be updated here after 7 PM. The candidates must note that the questions in Sets A, B, C and D are the same but the question number changes across the question paper sets. Therefore, the question and answer for all 50 questions are being added here for the benefit of students.

Question	Answer
1. Which organisation developed and launched 'Ugram' Indigenous Assault Rifle for the armed forces?	(4) DRDO
2. Which of the following substances is a bad conductor of electricity?	(1) Diamond
3. "Jhulaghat Suspension Bridge" between India and which country has become fully operational now?	(2) Nepal
4. Due to ocean acidification when the ocean becomes more acidic, what happens to the pH level of the ocean?	(1) The pH level goes down.
5. Who is the first para-athlete to receive the Padma Bhushan award in India?	(2) Devendra Jhajharia
6. Zemu Glacier is located in which state of India?	(3) Sikkim
7. Who among the following is Chile's first woman President?	(2) Michelle Bachelet
8. Which of the following disease is caused due to the deficiency of proteins?	(2) Kwashiorkor
9. Match List-l with List-II: List-I (Navy (Institution)) (A) INS Chilka (B) INS Hansa (C) INS Satavahana (D) INS Garuda List-II (Place) (I) Goa (II) Andhra Pradesh (III) Kerala (IV) Odisha	(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
10. DRDO has conducted the first successful flight test of Agni-5 missile equipped with MIRV technology. What is the full form of MIRV?	(1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle
11. Which Indian has won the "Ramon Magsaysay Award-2023"?	(4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R.
12. Who has been appointed the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India?	(4) Dr. Arvind Panagariya
13. Sri Ranganathswamy Temple which is situated in Tamil Nadu, is dedicated to which deity?	(2) Lord Vishnu
14. The Election Commission of India gets the power to conduct elections from which of the following articles?	(1) Article 324
15. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Centre of Handicraft) (A) Mon (B) Nalbari (C) Pasighat (D) Tura List-II (State) (I) Arunachal Pradesh (II) Assam (III) Meghalaya (IV) Nagaland	(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
16. Where is "Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary" loacted?	(1) Assam
17. India's first 3D-printed Post Office has been inaugurated in:	(4) Bengaluru
18. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following alphanumeric series? A1X, B4P, E25J, J100F, ?	(3) Q289D
19. In the given analogy, choose the word which will replace the question mark : NEGI: MVTR :: SING:?	(4) HRMT
20. In a certain code language 'ki ru pi' means 'nobody like cruel', 'ki mi cha' means 'king was cruel' and 'ru pi cha' means 'nobody like king'. What is the code for 'was' in the given code language?	(2) mi
21. Read the following information carefully to choose the best option for the question : 'P % Q' means that 'P is the sister of Q' 'P + Q' means that 'P is the son of Q 'P x Q' means that 'P is the husband of Q 'P - Q' means that 'P is the brother of Q' Which of the following means 'A is the son-in-law of G'?	(4) A x U % S + G
22. If 26th January, 2020 was a Sunday, then what day of the week was it on 16th March of that year?	(2) Monday
23. What will be the measurement of the angle made by the hour and minute hands of a clock when the time is 'quarter past 3'?	(3) 7 1/2°
24. If in a certain code laguage, 'MERCURY is coded as 'NGUGZXF', then how will 'ENTANGLE' be coded in the same code language?	(2) FPWESMSM
25. The problem given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. How many sisters does Sunny have? I. Sunny is the only son of his parents. II. Sunny's parents have three children.	3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
26. A boy leaves his house. He travels 6 km towards South, then travels 8 km towards West and further travels 9 km towards South. How far and in which direction is he from his house now?	(2) 17 km, South West
27. Find out which of the answer figures completes the figure matrix:	(3)
28. A clock seen through a mirror shows 'quarter to seven'. What is the correct time shown by the clock ?	(1) 6:15
29. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper book when unfolded?	(4)
30. Find out the missing (?) number and letter.	(2) 61 and L
31. What will be the next number of the series 3, 6, 10.5, 17, 26, ?	(2) 38
32. In a class of 40 students, Anjali's rank is thrice that of Anita. There are 4 students who have ranks worse than that of Anjali. Anita's rank in the class is:	(4) 12th
33. Six people E, H, K, M, S and U are seated in a circle facing the centre. U and H are immediate neighbours A of M. E is the only person sitting between K and S. H is to the immediate right of S. Who is to the immediate right of U?	(3) K
34. Find out which of the answer figures from the options can be formed using all the pieces given in the problem figure. Problem Figure:	(3)
35. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which conclusion(s) logically follows from the statements. of the given Statements: No keyboard is a mouse. All mouses are computers. All computers are laptops. Conclusions: I. All mouses are laptops. II. All computers can never be keyboards	(4) Both conclusions I and II follows.
36. Simply: 24 ÷ 4 × 2 + 8 - 4 = ?	(3) 16
37. The difference of the greatest and the smallest of the fractions 1/2, 8/11, 7/8, 7/9, 5/6:	(1) 3/8
38. The sum of LCM and HCF of two numbers is $54. If the LCM is 60 times the HCF and one of the numbers is 70, then the other number is	(3) 168
39. The present age of Harish is 8 times the sum of the ages of his two sons at present. After 8 years, his age will be 2 times the sum of the ages of his two sons. The present age of Harish (in years) is:	(2) 32
40. In an examination, it is required to get 300 marks to pass. A student gets 225 marks and is declared fail by 10% marks. What are the maximum marks of the examination?	(2) 750
41. In a class of 40 students, ratio of boys and girls is 3: 2. The average marks scored by boys is 42 and that by girls is 46. Then the average marks scored by the whole class is :	(2) 43.6
42. The sum of three numbers is 136. If the ratio between the first number and the second number is 2 : 3 and that between the second and the third number is 5: 3, then the first number is :	(2) 40
43. An item is sold for ₹504 after allowing 20% discount and still a profit of 5% has been earned. The marked price is how much more than the cost price?	(3) Rs 150
44. A certain sum becomes ₹2,356 in 3 years and ₹2,660 in 5 years on simple interest. The value of sum is :	(3) Rs 1,900
45. In a square, lengths of the diagonals are (4k + 6) cmmand (7k - 3) cm. Th area of the square (in cm 2 ) is:	(2) 162
46. The volume of a cylinder having base radius 3cmFind its curved surface area (in cm 2 ) (Use π = 22/7 )	(3) 264
47. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?	(4) 3 hours 45 minutes
48. A train running at the speed of 80 km/h crosses a 950 m long tunnel in 36 seconds. The length of the train (in m) is	(4) 450
49. If the mean of 3, 4, 9, 2k, 10, 8, 6 and (k + 6) is 8, and mode of 2, 2, 3, 2p, (2p + 1) 4, 4, 5 and 6 (p is a natural number) is 4, then the value of (k - 2p) is :	(3) 2
50. In triangle ABC, points D and E are on AB and AC respectively such that DE is parallel to BC. If AD = 6 cm, DB = 4cm , AE = 9 cm, then the length of EC (in cm) is	(3) 6
51. If sin A = 3,then (3 - tan A) (2 + cos A) =	(2) 13/3
52. A man can row a boat at 8 km/h in still water. If the speed of the water current is 2 km/h and it takes him 2 hours to row to a place and come back, then how far off (in km) is the place ?	(1) 7.5
53. From the given options, which pass connects ammu with Srinagar?	(1) Banihal pass
54. Which of the following is not correctly matched regarding Padma Awards-2024?	(2) Padma Shri Award → Mithun Chakraborty
55. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Person) (A) Vishakhadatta (B) Kartikeya Sarabhai (C) Charaka (D) Satyendra Nath Bose List-II (Area of work) (I) Medicine (II) Poet (III) Environmentalist (IV) Mathematics Choose the correct answer from the options given below.	(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
56. The following states were formed after 1960. What was the correct sequence of their formation? (A) Haryana (B) Sikkim (C) Nagaland (D) Goa Choose the correct answer from the options given below.	(2) (C), (A), (B), (D)
57. Out of the given options, which scheme's objective is to conduct an annual survey at the gram panchayat level to monitor the progress in the development process of rural areas?	(1) Mission Antyodaya (2022-23)
58. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the "Quadrilateral Security Dialogue" known as "QUAD"?	(1) China
59. Who has become the first woman chairperson of the Railway Board of Indian Railways in 2023?	(1) Jaya Verma Sinha
60. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Country) (A) Myanmar (B) Russia (C) Malaysia (D) Bhutan List-II (Currency A) (I) Ruble (II) Ngultrum (III) Kyat (IV) Ringgit Choose the correct answer from the options given below.	(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

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Candidates shall note that NTA will be releasing the official answer key soon through the official website. Based on the answer keys, the results will be prepared and declared. However, candidates will have the chance to raise objections to the provisional answer key, after which the final answer keys will be prepared by subject experts after considering the objections raised by the aspirants. The final discretion of the answers is within the power of NTA, and the final results will be released accordingly. After the declaration of the results, no requests regarding the answer key will be entertained. Further, to raise objections, candidates will have to pay Rs 200 per question online through the candidate's login portal.

Marks vs Percentile

Subject-wise CUET Marks vs Percentile 2024 and Keys