UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial (Available): Shift 1, 2 key PDF download

Aman Agarwal

Updated On: June 19, 2024 08:39 pm IST

UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 (unofficial) for both Shift 1 and Shift 2 can be checked here after the completion of the exam. The official key is expected in last week of June 2024
UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024

UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 (Shift 1 & 2): The National Testing Agency conducted the UGC NET June 2024 exam on June 18 in two different shifts. Candidates who appeared for the exam can check Shift 1 and Shift 2 UGC NET answer key 2024 for Paper 1. The unofficial key consists of correct answers for all 50 questions asked in Paper 1 - General Test. Candidates can use the answer key to determine the marks obtained in the exam. UGC NET Paper 1 answer key 2024 has been prepared with the help of subject matter experts. The official answer key is expected to be released in the last week of June or the first week of July. Along with the UGC NET answer key 2024 for paper 1 (unofficial), candidates can also check the expected cutoff for different subjects along with the category-wise cutoff.

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Answer Key Unlocked!

Access the official exam answer key and compare your responses.

UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial Shift 2 (Available)

The UGC NET Shift 2 exam 2024 will conclude at 6 PM and the unofficial answer key for the same will be added below after completion of the exam. Also Check, UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper Analysis Shift 1 & 2 2024

Sr. No. Question Answer
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow (1-5):
The following table - I shows the percentage (%) distribution of patients of various diseases in the world and table - II shows the percentage (%) distribution of all the patients and Kidney patients in various continents....
1 If the number of patients increases by 10% every year in Europe, then what is the difference between the number of patients in Europe after two years and the number of Kidney patients in South America in 2023 ? 5 lakh
2 The number of Kidney patients in Australia is approximately _____________ of heart disease in the world. To be updated
3 What is the ratio of the number of patients in Africa to the total number of Kidney patients in Asia and North America together? To be updated
4 If the number of hepatitis patients in the world increases by 6% and that of heart disease increases by 22%, then what will be the new ratio of number of hepatitis patients to the number of heart disease patients in the world? To be updated
5 Il the number of Kidney patients uf South America decreases by 25%, then what is the percentage decrease in the number of Kidney patients in the world? To be updated
6 Match List I with LIST - 11.
List I (Communication form)
A. Personal address
B. Social drama
C Narratives
D. Silence
List II (Description)
I. Sequential accounts told and retold from a particular viewpoint
II. Subject to a community's rules for appropriate conduct
III. Points to self and others in interaction
IV. Invokes local socio-cultural rules for behaviour
A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
7 Which of the following computer devices are output devices only?
A. Track ball
B. CRT monitor
C. Number pad
D. Plotter
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
B and D only
8 Which of the following statements about computer memories is correct? SSDs are also known as volatile memory.
9 Which of the following statements are true regarding Macaulay ?
A. He succeeded in replacing Persian with English as the administrative language.
B. He promoted training of English Speaking Indians as teachers.
C. He was inspired by Utilitarian ideas.
D. He promoted "useful learning".
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A and B only
10 Which of the following are the characteristics of mass communication ?
A. Homogeneous audience
B. Professional communication as source
C. Immediate feedback
D. Use of a medium
E. Rapid transmission of messages
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
B, D, and E only
11 Identify the list of 4 quadrants of the courses hosted on SWAYAM -
A. Self-assessment tests
B Video lecture
C. Online discussion forum for clearing the doubt
D Specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed
E Face-to-Face interaction among learners
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options, given below :
A, B, C, and D only
12 Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Á mai purchased an item at gain is 25%. - of its selling price 'X', and sold it at 5% more than X. The gain is 25%
B. A dealer professes to sell his goods His gain is 11 11% 9 at cost price but uses a weight of 900 g fo for a kg weight.
C. If loss is one third of the selling price, the loss percentage is 25% 873929
D. By selling 100 pens, a vendor gains the selling price of 20 pens. His gain is 20%.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
B and C only
13 The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) measures the number of students enrolled in higher educati as a percentage of the eligible population aged between: 18 to 23 years
14 Which of the following are the National Coordinators appointed for SWAYAM courses ?
A. Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIMB)
B National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL)
C. National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)
D Block Institute of Teacher Education (BITE)
E Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
A, B, C, and E only
15 Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Threats to Internal Validity)
A. Maturation threat
B. Attrition threat
C. History threat
D Testing threat
List - II (Description)
I. When participants' behaviour changes as a function of having been tested previously I.
II. When some event outside the research project affects (participants systematically
III. Occurs because of short or long term changes in a participant because of psychological changes like boredom, fatigue etc.
IV. When participants drop-out of a study, leading to a change in the nature of the sample
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
16 Identify the correct sequence from (earliest to latest) of the universities established in the eas years of the twentieth century India:
A Osmania University
B Aligarh Muslim University
C. SNDT Women's University
D. Nagpur University
E. Patna University
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
C, E, A, B, D
17 Arrange the following in order of increasing connotation:
A. Domestic Animal
B. Animal
C. Horse
D. Beast of burden
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
B, A, C, D
18 What is the correct sequence (from lower number to higher) of the following related to Sustainabi Development Goals (SDGs) ?
A. Number of Publications
B. Number of Goals
C. Number of Targets
D Number of Indicators
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
B, D, C, A
19 Arrange the following sections of a research dissertation in correct sequence.
A. Acknowledgement
B. Research Methods
C. Discussion
D. Literature review
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
A, D, B, C
20 Which digital platform of Ministry of Education has been formed by merging three consortia initiatives, namely UGC-INFONET Digital library consortium, NLIST and INDEST-AICTE consortium? e-Shodh Sindhu
21 Which of the following refers to a sampling approach in structured observation whereby a sampled individual is observed for a set period of time? Focal sampling
22 A sum of 50 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A gets 5 less than B, and B gets 10 less than C. What is the ratio of their money share? 2:3:5
23 International Solar Alliance (ISA) is the alliance of countries most of which lie partially or completely - Between tropic of cancer and tropic of capricom
24 Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (College)
A. Poona College for Hindu Learning
B. Hindu College, Kolkata (Presidency College)
C Bishop College, Sibpur
D. Scottish Missionary College, Kolkata
List - II (Founder)
I. Alexander Duff
II. M. Elphinstone
III. Rajaram Mohan Roy
IV. Church of England
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
25 Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Internet Protocol)
A. HTTP
B. SSL
C. SMTP
D. FIP
List - II (Internet Activity)
I. Sends email through the Internet
II. Encrypts data for online transmission
III. Sends TCP/IP packets to web server
IV. Transfers files over the Internet
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
26 If (L) M represents a number L. in base - M-number system, then identify the correct ascending order of following numbers A-D, when converted to a base-10 number system.
A. (8B) 16
B. (212) 8
C. (260) 7
D. (10001101) 2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the ophons given below:
A, B, C, D
27 Which of the following statements are correct as per Classical Indian School of logic (Nyāya) ?
A. Nyāya syllogism has three propositions.
B. Nyaya syllogism has five propositions.
C. Nyāya syllogism has three terms.
D Nyaya syllogism has five terms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
B and C only
28 Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Words)
A. BOLT
B. RING
C. SOLD
D. FROM
List - II (Codes with same rule)
I. 52
II. 50
III. 49
IV. 48
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
29 Which of the following is an ancient Indian treatise on problems related to Mathematics? (2) Lilavati
30 Which one of the following is an extremely short lived and unstable air/water pollutant? (4) Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs)
31 Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement - "No cats are non-feline."? (3) All cats are feline.
32 Which fallacy is committed in the ronowing statement - "Tarun cannot be guilty of murder since there is no way, Tarun could kill someone." (3) Begging the Question
33 Identify the correct sequence of the cycle of self-regulated learning.
A Enacting Tactics and strategies
B. Devising Plans
C. Setting Goals
D. Regulating learning
E Analyzing the task
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
C, D, B, A, E
34 "I believe I will do well in this class," Ram declared to his brother. "I received a perfect score on the verbal part of the SAT, and I have always excelled in my literature classes." Ram is demonstrating which of the following? (3) High self-efficacy in literature
35 Identify the scale/scales of measurement which would allow ranking of observations. 35
A. nominal scale
B ordinal scale
C interval scale
D ratio scale
Choose the correct answer from the options giver below
B, C, and D only
36 Which of the following statements are true ?
A. Truth and falsehood are attributes of individual propositions.
B. Validity can never apply to any single proposition by itself.
C. In a valid argument all of its premises have to be true.
D A valid deductive argument cannot have all true premises and a false conclusion.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A, B, and D only
37 Arrange the following fractions in increasing order:
A. 14/17
B. 11/13
C. 7/9
D. 16/19
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
C, A, D, B
38 Around 1945, who developed the idea of a stored program computer that was to hold programs and data in a memory and then data would more between the memory and the processor ? (4) John Von Neumann
39 Which of the following are true about Solar Thermal Energy Collectors (STEC) ?
A. Basic Unit of STEC is a solar cell.
B. STECs may be Flat plate or concentrating type.
C. Temperature in STECs may rise over thousand degree centrigrades.
D. STECs can produce electricity.
E. Paraboloid dish collector is on example of STEC where temperature can go upto 2000 C.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A, B, C, D, and E
40 A culture which is not touched by communication of alphabetic writing is known as a culture of : (4) Primary Orality
41 A 500 m long train running at a speed de 100 m/s crosses a tunnel in 10 s. What is the length of the tunnel? 500 m
42 Employment of classroom technology needs clarity with regard to:
A. Instructional messages
B. Course objectives
C. Technological competencies
D. Experience of failures
E. Institutional indolence
Choose the correct answer from the from the options given below:
A, B, and C only
43 The systematic elimination of extraneous variables other than those you are interested in can be achieved in: (3) experimental research
44 Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Water specific diseases)
A. Water borne diseases
(Due to ingestion of polluted water)
B. Water washed diseases
(Due to lack of cleaning water)
C. Water based diseases
(Due to contact with polluted water)
D. Water related diseases
(Due to habitation of disease causing parasites in polluted water)
List - II (Examples)
I. Malaria
II. Schistosomiasis
III. Typhoid
IV. Trachoma
Choose the correct answer from the from the options given below:
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
45 In Buddhist thought, self-reflexivay is built into the process of: Power relations
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow (46-50):
Micron's $800 million semiconductor plant followed by recent approval to Tata Group....
46 India's share in the semiconductor global talent pool is: One-third
47 As a result of the chip boom, the requirement of workforce in the electronics manufacturing sector will: increase
48 The need for additional talented and skilled workforce in the domestic semiconductor sector has been created by
A. The approval given to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and ATP plants
B. Micron's $ 800 million semiconductor plant
C. Setting up of new Universities
D The global supply chain shuft centered around chip manufacturing in India
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
A, B, and D only
49 Micron set up a A semiconductor plant
50 The new talented skilled workforce in India will come mainly from The Non-IITian orbit

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UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial Shift 1

The UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial for shift 1 is being added below.

S.No.

Question

Answer

1 If the number of readers from city C in the year 2019 and that from City E in the year....... 51.5
2 If the number of readers from City D in the years 2019 and 2023 were 77400..... 22,200
3

If the total number of readers from all the cities A-F together in the years 2019 and 2013 were......

1.175 Lakh

4

If the ratio of the number of the readers from the city A in the year 2019 to that in 2023 was 2:5

2:5

5 If the total number of readers from all the six cities A - Ftogether in the year 2023 was 50,000 4
6 Which of the following digital initiatives provided the database of.... E-vidwan
7 A device used to convert digital signal to analogue signal for communication...... modem
8 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 A - III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
9 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 University Education Commission
10 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 C only
11 A motorboat covers a certain distance downstream in 5 hours but takes 6 hours to return upstream...... 44 Km/h
12 When communication helps a group achieve its goal it is known as..... Promotive Role
13 Choose the correct statement:
  • x% of y is equal to y% of 100x
  • If 40% of 60% of.......
B and C only
14

Which of the following approaches to the study of reality suggests that only knowledge gained through experience and the senses is acceptable

Empiricism
15 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 10 hr
16 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 B, D and E only
17 Knowing that you find algebra more difficult than your sister does but that you could improve with practice, is an example of Metacognition
18 What is the base 10 equivalent of the base 4 number 3013?
19 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 A, C and D only
20 UGC NET Answer Key 2024
21 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 E, A, D, C, B
22 What is the full form of POP Persistent Organic Pollutants
23 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 To be added
24 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
25 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 C,B,A,D
26 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
27 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Appeal to Ignorance
28 If a research project is set up so that everybody in the population of interest has an equal chance of being included..... Probability Sampling
29 Which technology first marked a separation between transportation and communication? Printing
30 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 B and C only
31 Also Check | UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper Analysis Shift 1 & 2 2024 A and B Only
32 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 Option 3
33 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Option 1
34 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 A, B, D, C
35 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 Option 4
36 C and D only
37 UGC NET Answer Key 2024 About 80%
38 The global center for traditional medicine has been established in Jamnagar
39 Choose an appropriate title for the passage Holistic healthcare
40 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial Shift 1, 2 key PDF download A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
41 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial Option D
42 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
43 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial D, C, B, A
44 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial B,C,D only
45 UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key 2024 Unofficial A, C, E only

UGC NET Category-Wise Expected Cutoff 2024 |

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UGC NET General Category Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET OBC Category Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET EWS Category Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET ST Category Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET SC Category Expected Cutoff Marks 2024

UGC NET Qualifying Marks 2024

The candidate can check the UGC NET Qualifying Marks 2024 or the minimum marks required to qualify for the exam:

Category Qualifying Marks
General Category 40%
OBC Non-creamy layer 35%
PWD/SC/ST and Transgenders 35%

UGC NET Course-Wise Expected Cutoff 2024 |

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UGC NET Management Expected Cutoff 2024
UGC NET Economics Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET History Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET Commerce Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET Hindi Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET English Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET Political Science Expected Cutoff Marks 2024
UGC NET Psychology Expected Cutoff 2024
UGC NET Telugu Expected Cutoff Marks 2024

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