NEET Questions on Atomic Structure

NEET Questions on Atomic Structure list focuses on highlighting the important topics to be covered in this chapter from the NEET Chemistry Syllabus, in the upcoming entrance exam. The NEET Questions on Atomic Structure also allow students to reflect on last year's NEET Question Papers to understand the repetitive questions and important topics to be covered in the preparation period.
The NEET Questions on Atomic Structure list marks an important part of the NEET Chemistry Syllabus comprising an overall 10% weightage in the Chemistry section of the NEET Question Paper. The NEET Questions on Atomic Structure are based on topics such as subatomic particles, atomic models, electron configurations, quantum numbers, Bohr’s model, etc. Moreover, the NEET Questions on Atomic Structure list is important for students to analyze their exam preparation by solving the previous years’ questions and taking mock tests based on this list. For all those who wish to crack the NEET Entrance Exam with a good score, referring to the NEET Questions on Atomic Structure is guaranteed to help secure a good score in NEET UG . To understand the NEET Questions on Atomic Structure in detail, refer to the article below.

List of NEET Questions on Atomic Structure

To understand the areas of importance in the NEET Chemistry Syllabus, it is important to refer to the NEET Questions based on each chapter in the same. To assist students with concept building and a clear understanding of certain topics, the NEET Questions on Atomic Structure highlight the important areas of study to be covered for the entrance exam, allowing students to curate an effective preparation strategy as per their understanding of the subject matter. To delve deeper into the list of NEET Questions on Atomic Structure, students must refer to the following important NEET Questions:

Q1. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding cathode rays?

1. Cathode rays originate from the cathode
2. The charge and mass of the particles constituting cathode rays depend upon the nature of the gas.
3. The charge and mass of the particles constituting cathode rays do not depend on the cathode’s material.
4. They possess kinetic energy.

Answer: The charge and mass of the particles constituting cathode rays depend upon the nature of the gas.

Q2. Which is false concerning cathode rays?

1. A stream of electrons
2. Charged particles
3. Can be deflected by the electric field
4. Move with the same speed as that of light.

Answer: Move with the same speed as that of light.

Q3. When was the electron discovered?

1. 1896
2. 1897
3. 1898
4. 1895

Answer: 1897

Q4. The charge on an electron was discovered by:

1. J.J. Thomson
2. Neil Bohr
3. Chadwick
4. Millikan

Answer: Millikan

Q5. In the determination of charge to mass ratio, the deflection of electrons from their original path?

1. Increases with the increase in the voltage across the electrodes.
2. Increases with the decrease in the voltage across the electrodes.
3. Decreases with the increase in the voltage across the electrodes
4. Does not depend on the voltage across the electrodes.

Answer: Increases with the increase in the voltage across the electrodes.

Q6. The ratio of the mass of an electron to that of the mass of a hydrogen atom is:

1. 1:3871
2. 1:1296
3. 1:1837
4. 1:3781

Answer: 1:1296

Q7. The ratio of charge and mass would be greater for:

1. Proton
2. Electron
3. Neutron
4. a-particle

Answer: Electron

Q8. Positive rays or canal rays are:

1. electromagnetic waves
2. a stream of positively charged gaseous ions
3. a stream of electrons
4. neutrons

Answer: a stream of positively charged gaseous ions

Q9. The e/m for positive rays in comparison to cathode rays is:

1. very low
2. same
3. high
4. none

Answer: very low

Q10. Proton was discovered by:

1. J.J. Thomson
2. Goldstein
3. Chadwick
4. Max Born

Answer: Goldstein

Q11. What is wrong with anode rays?

1. Their e/m ratio is constant.
2. They are deflected by electrical and magnetic fields.
3. They are produced by ionization of molecules of the residual gas.
4. They do not originate from the cathode.

Answer: Their e/m ratio is constant.

Q12. The mass of a neutron is ______ times the mass of the electron.

1. 1840
2. 1480
3. 2000
4. None of these

Answer: 1480

Q13. The ratio of the specific charge of a proton and an a-particle is:

1. 2:1
2. 1:2
3. 1:4
4. 1:1

Answer: 2:1

Q14. The lightest particle in the following is.

1. a-particle
2. Positron
3. Proton
4. Neutron

Answer: Positron

Q15. According to the Thomson model of an atom, the mass of the atom is assumed to be:

1. uniformly distributed over the atom
2. randomly distributed over the atom
3. partially distributed over the atom
4. None of these

Answer: uniformly distributed over the atom

Q16. a-particles are represented by:

1. Lithium atoms
2. Helium nuclei
3. Hydrogen nuclei
4. None of these

Answer: Helium nuclei

Q17. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment eventually led to the conclusion that:

1. Mass and energy are related
2. Electrons occupy space around the nucleus
3. Neutrons are buried deep in the nucleus
4. The point of impact with matter can be precisely determined

Answer: Electrons occupy space around the nucleus

Q18. Rutherford’s experiment on the scattering of alpha particles showed for the first time that the atom has:

1. Electrons
2. Protons
3. Nucleus
4. Neutrons

Answer: Nucleus

Q19. The ratio of neutrons in C and Si with respective atomic masses 12 and 28 are:

1. 2:3
2. 3:2
3. 3:7
4. 7:3

Answer: 3:7

Q20. Statement I: Isobars are identical in chemical properties.

Statement II: Isobars have the same atomic numbers.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q21. The number of neutrons and electrons, respectively, present in the radioactive isotope of hydrogen is:

1. 2 and 1
2. 2 and 2
3. 3 and 1
4. 1 and 1

Answer: 2 and 1

Q22. The nitride ion in lithium nitride is composed of:

1. 7-protons + 10 electrons
2. 10-protons + 10 electrons
3. 7-protons +7 electrons
4. 10-protons + 7 electrons

Answer: 7-protons + 10 electrons

Q23. Statement I: Isotopes have the same chemical properties but different physical properties.

Statement II: Isobars have different chemical properties but few common physical properties.

1. Statement I and Statement II both are true.
2. Statement I and Statement II both are false.
3. Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.

Answer: Statement I and Statement II both are false.

Q24. Statement I: Isotopes have the same chemical properties but different physical properties.

Statement II: The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of electrons in the atom.

1. Statement I and Statement II both are true.
2. Statement I and Statement II both are false.
3. Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.

Answer: Statement I and Statement II both are false.

Q25. The correct arrangement of the following electromagnetic spectrum in the increasing order of frequency is:

1. Cosmic rays < Amber light < Radiation of FM radio < X-rays < Radiation from microwave ovens
2. Radiation from FM radio < Radiation from microwave ovens < Amber light < X-rays < Cosmic rays.
3. Radiation from microwave ovens < Amber light < Radiation of FM radio < X-rays < Cosmic rays
4. Cosmic rays < X-rays < Radiation from microwave ovens < Amber light < Radiation of FM radio

Answer: Radiation from FM radio < Radiation from microwave ovens < Amber light < X-rays < Cosmic rays.

Q26. Which of the following has the maximum wavelength?

1. Cosmic rays
2. g-rays
3. Micro waves
4. Radio waves

Answer: Radio waves

Q27. Rank the following types of radiations from the highest energy to the lowest. Ultraviolet/ visible/ X-ray/ microwave/infrared:

(X-ray, ultraviolet, microwave, infrared, visible

(2) ultraviolet, X-ray, visible, infrared, microwave

(3) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, visible, X-ray

(4) X-ray, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwave

Answer: X-ray, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwave

Q28. The range of wavelengths for visible light is:

1. 7800 Å to 1500 Å
2. 1 Å to 100 Å
3. 4000 Å to 8000 Å
4. 8000 Å to 10,000 Å

Answer: 4000 Å to 8000 Å

Q29. The color of the sky is due to:

1. Absorption of light by atmospheric gases
2. Wavelength of scattered light
3. Transmission of light
4. All of these

Answer: Wavelength of scattered light

Q30. Statement-I: K and Cs are used in photoelectric cells.

Statement-II: K and Cs emit electrons on exposure to light.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Q31. The number of photoelectrons ejected is directly proportional to :

1. Frequency of radiation
2. Wavelength of radiation
3. Energy of radiation
4. Intensity of radiation

Answer: Intensity of radiation

Q32. The threshold frequency of a metal corresponds to the wavelength of x nm. In two separate experiments, ‘A’ and ‘B’, incident radiations of wavelength 1/2x nm and 1/4x nm respectively are used. The ratio of kinetic energies of the released electrons in experiment ‘B’ to that in experiment’ A’ is:

1. 1/3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 3

Answer: 3

Q33. Statement I: According to Bohr’s atomic model, electrons revolve in an orbit without loss of energy.

Statement II: Stationary orbit has an equal value of centrifugal and electrostatic forces.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Q34. Statement I: The radius of the second orbit of He+ is equal to that of the first orbit of hydrogen.

Statement-II: The radius of an orbit in hydrogen-like species is directly proportional to n2 and inversely proportional to Z.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q35. The energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding to the quantum number equal to 5 is:

1. – 0.54 eV
2. – 0.85 eV
3. – 0.64 eV
4. – 0.40 eV

Answer: – 0.54 eV

Q36. The ratio of the difference in energy between the first and second Bohr orbits to that between the second and third orbits is:

1. 1/3
2. 27/5
3. 9/5
4. 4/9

Answer: 27/5

Q37. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the energy of the electron in its lowest orbit is:

1. Infinite energy
2. Maximum energy
3. Minimum energy
4. None of these

Answer: Infinite energy

Q38. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom at its ground state is:

1. –1312 kJ/mol
2. –328 kJ/mol
3. +1312 kJ/mol
4. zero

Answer: +1312 kJ/mol

Q39. Assertion (A): Hydrogen has one electron in its orbit but it produces several spectral lines.

Reason (R): There are many exciting energy levels available.

1. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R), are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
2. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R), are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
3. If Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
4. If Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

Answer: Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R), are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Q40. Assertion: According to Bohr, the angular momentum of an electron in an orbit is quantized.

Reason: Bohr’s model of an atom could not explain the Stark effect.

1. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R), are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
2. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R), are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
3. If Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
4. If Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

Answer: Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R), are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Q41. Which of the following is not a limitation of the Bohr model of the atom?

1. Electrons move around the nucleus in circular, planar orbits.
2. Electrons are only considered as particles and not as waves.
3. It is possible to precisely determine the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously
4. Electrons within atoms can only occupy quantised energy levels.

Answer: Electrons within atoms can only occupy quantised energy levels.

Q42. The splitting of spectral lines under the influence of a magnetic field is called:

1. Zeeman effect
2. Stark effect
3. Photoelectric effect
4. None of these

Answer: Zeeman effect

In conclusion, the list of NEET Questions on Atomic Structure act as a guide to help students understand the important areas of study in the chapter, and offer a glimpse of the types of questions asked in the entrance exam in previous years. All students who refer to the NEET Syllabus must follow the NEET Questions on Atomic Structure list to solve the important questions and test their knowledge. These are curated by analyzing the year-wise NEET syllabus, previous years’ question papers, toppers’ recommendations and experts’ advice. To know more about the latest updates on the upcoming NEET entrance exam, keep following CollegeDekho!

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